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Question 1
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A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA
Explanation:Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.
Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.
Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.
Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.
Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.
Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.
In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student midwife presents with increasing pain and swelling of the ring finger of her left hand. The pain and swelling started two days ago and is now extremely uncomfortable to the point the patient has been avoiding using the left hand altogether. She cannot remember injuring the affected area, and is usually fit and well, without medical conditions to note except an allergy to peanuts.
On examination, the affected finger is markedly swollen and erythematosus, with tenderness to touch – especially along the flexor aspect of the finger. The patient is holding the finger in slight flexion; attempts at straightening the finger passively causes the patient extreme pain. The patient is diagnosed with tenosynovitis.
About which one of the following conditions should the presence of acute migratory tenosynovitis in young adults, particularly women aged 20, alert the doctor?Your Answer: Fluoroquinolone toxicity
Correct Answer: Disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:Migratory tenosynovitis can be caused by disseminated gonococcal infection in younger adults, particularly women. It is important to test for C6-C9 complement deficiency. Rheumatoid arthritis can also cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory and is usually found in the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. Scleroderma can cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory either. Fluoroquinolone toxicity may increase the risk of tendinopathy and tendon rupture, but it does not cause migratory tenosynovitis. Reactive arthritis can cause tendinitis, but it is more prevalent in men and is not migratory. It is a rheumatoid factor-seronegative arthritis that can be linked with HLA-B27.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness that improves with physical activity. As she enters her 30s, she develops arthritis in her hips and shoulders, and by her 40s, she notices reduced mobility in her lumbar spine. She has no significant medical issues. What condition is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:The symptoms described suggest a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, a chronic form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton. Diagnosis is made using the modified New York criteria, which includes clinical and radiological criteria. HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis on MRI play a major role in the recently proposed ASAS diagnostic algorithm. Radiographic sacroiliitis is required for eligibility for anti-TNF treatment. Other conditions, such as pseudogout, Lyme disease, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis, are unlikely diagnoses. Timely diagnosis requires a high index of suspicion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:NSAIDs for Gout Treatment
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult to get out of her chair. She also complains of a right-sided temporal headache, which is often triggered when she brushes her hair. A diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis is suspected.
Which of the following blood tests is most useful in supporting the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma viscosity
Explanation:Diagnostic Markers for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Temporal arthritis
Polymyalgia rheumatica and temporal arthritis are inflammatory conditions that can cause significant morbidity if left untreated. Here are some diagnostic markers that can help support or rule out these conditions:
Plasma viscosity: A raised plasma viscosity can support a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis, but it is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.
Creatine kinase: A raised creatine kinase is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Monospot test: A positive monospot test is supportive of a diagnosis of Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Whole cell count (WCC): A raised WCC is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
Bence Jones proteins: Presence of Bence Jones protein is supportive of a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.
If temporal arthritis is suspected, immediate treatment with prednisolone is crucial to prevent permanent loss of vision. A temporal artery biopsy can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
What could be the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies
The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.
Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behçet’s syndrome
Explanation:Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations
Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.
Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis
Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
Full blood counts showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Felty syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes
Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses
Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.
Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness, fatigue, weight loss, and elevated ESR levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differentiating between Rheumatic Diseases: A Case Study
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly population, presenting as pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips. In contrast, polymyositis is an autoimmune connective tissue disease that results in proximal muscle weakness. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells, causing bone pain, renal failure, and anaemia. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory, symmetrical polyarthropathy that tends to cause joint stiffness and pain within the small joints, as well as causing fatigue. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative arthritis that commonly affects the knee, hip, spine, and hands.
In this case study, the patient presented with shoulder stiffness, fatigue, low-grade fever, and anaemia. A diagnosis of PMR was made clinically and with the aid of a raised ESR. Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which should be reduced gradually once symptoms are controlled to avoid the risks of chronic steroid use.
It is important to differentiate between these rheumatic diseases as they have different underlying causes, presentations, and treatments. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations are necessary for accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.
One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.
On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.
Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.
In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Explanation:Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy
The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.
Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.
On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.
Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.
In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman, with a history of recurrent falls, had a recent fall on her outstretched right hand. An X-ray revealed a fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement. She has multiple risk factors for osteoporosis, and a DEXA scan was requested. What score is indicative of a diagnosis of osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T score: < −2.5
Explanation:When it comes to bone density, T scores are an important measure to understand. A T score of less than -2.5 is indicative of osteoporosis, while a T score between -1 and -2.5 suggests osteopenia. On the other hand, a T score of 0-1 is considered normal, but may still require monitoring. A T score greater than 2.5 is also normal, but may not be the case if the patient has experienced a fragility fracture. It’s important to note that Z scores, which take into account age and gender, can also provide insight into bone density. Understanding T scores and their implications can help healthcare professionals and patients take preventative measures to maintain bone health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back pain. He used to be an active soccer player but has had to give up due to the pain.
During the examination, there is no skin rash or history of gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms. The patient reports difficulty standing straight and walking in a stooped position for hours each morning before being able to stand up straight. Additionally, there is redness and pain around the right heel, and Schober's test is positive.
What abnormalities may be found on the patient's ECG?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A-V dissociation, deep S in V1 and tall R in V5
Explanation:Ankylosing Spondylitis and Cardiac Manifestations
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a systemic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. One of the extra-articular manifestations of AS is cardiac involvement, which can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation. Chronic aortic regurgitation can cause left ventricular hypertrophy, resulting in deep S in V1 and tall R in V5. A-V dissociation is the ECG manifestation of heart block. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death.
P-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, but it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension when the right atrium is enlarged. Pulmonary fibrosis, which can occur in AS, can theoretically lead to pulmonary hypertension and p-pulmonale. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur without any heart disease or in conditions such as atrial septal defect, ischemic heart disease, or pulmonary embolism.
In conclusion, AS is a systemic disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body, including the heart. Cardiac involvement can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation, which can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death. While p-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur in various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the left hand, although she is not experiencing any tenderness or swelling of the affected fingers.
In which one of the following conditions can tendinitis/tenosynovitis present without being swollen and tender?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis
Explanation:Types of Arthritis and Infections that can Cause Tenosynovitis
Tenosynovitis is a condition where the tendon sheath becomes inflamed, causing pain and swelling. It can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections. Here are some of the most common causes:
Systemic Sclerosis: This autoimmune disease causes fibrosis of connective tissue, resulting in hard and thickened skin, swollen digits, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Tenosynovitis in systemic sclerosis is non-tender and without swelling of the tendons.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: Tenosynovitis due to rheumatoid arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons. It usually involves the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints, and can cause deformities such as swan neck and Boutonnière’s deformity.
Gout: Gout can cause tenosynovitis, which is very painful and presents with redness and swollen tendons. It typically affects the metatarsophalangeal joints.
Disseminated Gonococcal Infection: This infection can cause acute migratory tenosynovitis, especially in younger adults. Women may be asymptomatic, while men may present with urethral discharge or dysuria.
Reactive Arthritis: This type of arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons, commonly affecting the knees or sacrum. It is an acutely inflammatory process and would therefore be swollen and tender.
In conclusion, tenosynovitis can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.
Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.
Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.
Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.
Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing sinusitis. Upon chest X-ray, multiple cavitating lung lesions are discovered. The medical team suspects granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). What is the most effective blood test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their Associated Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly target and attack the body’s own tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the diseases they are associated with:
1. c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody): GPA, a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs.
2. Antimitochondrial antibody: primary biliary cholangitis.
3. Anti Glomerular basement membrane antibody: Goodpasture’s syndrome, a rare autoimmune disease that affects the lungs and kidneys.
4. p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA): Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (previously known as Churg–Strauss syndrome), a rare autoimmune disease that affects the blood vessels.
5. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody: myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue.
Understanding the association between autoantibodies and their associated diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue. She reports experiencing dysphagia, a dry mouth, a gritty feeling in her eyes, and heightened sensitivity to light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sjögren syndrome
Explanation:Comparison of Symptoms: Sjögren Syndrome, Haemochromatosis, Hepatitis C Virus Infection, Oesophageal Carcinoma, and Polymyositis
Sjögren syndrome is a condition that causes inflammation and destruction of exocrine glands, resulting in dry and gritty eyes, dry mouth, photosensitivity, fatigue, and joint pain. Patients may also experience excessive watering or deposits of dried mucous in the corner of the eye, recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis, and parotid swelling. On examination, xerostomia can be detected as a diminished salivary pool, a dried fissured tongue, and chronic oral candidiasis.
Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a pigmented (tanned) appearance and may cause dry mouth and thirst due to diabetes.
Hepatitis C virus infection can be associated with a secondary Sjögren syndrome, but there is no indication of this in the question.
Oesophageal carcinoma is unlikely to cause ocular symptoms.
Polymyositis does not present with any history of muscle weakness.
In summary, while some symptoms may overlap between these conditions, a thorough examination and medical history are necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases
HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.
Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.
Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
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A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
What is the most effective treatment option at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs
Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.
Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.
In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his right elbow. He mentions feeling generally unwell for the past few days and remembers hitting his elbow while cycling the previous week. During the examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, his heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg. There is a warm, erythematous swelling on the posterior aspect of his right elbow.
What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Explanation:Management of Suspected Infected Olecranon Bursitis
Suspected infected olecranon bursitis requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following options are available:
Option 1: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Empirical antibiotics, such as oral flucloxacillin, should be started immediately to cover for staphylococci and streptococci. However, urgent same-day aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 2: Arrange for corticosteroid injection
If there are no signs of infection, corticosteroid injection may be considered after conservative measures have failed in aseptic olecranon bursitis. However, in suspected septic olecranon bursitis, urgent antibiotics and aspiration are required.Option 3: Oral flucloxacillin only
Empirical oral flucloxacillin should be started as soon as possible in suspected infected olecranon bursitis. However, referral for urgent aspiration is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 4: Oral amoxicillin and refer for urgent aspiration
Flucloxacillin, not amoxicillin, should be given for suspected septic olecranon bursitis to cover the most common organisms. Urgent aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.Option 5: Refer for urgent aspiration
Urgent aspiration is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility. Empirical antibiotics should be started first while awaiting culture results. If the patient is seen in the Emergency Department, aspiration may be done first before starting antibiotics. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
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A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation:Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases
Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:
1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).
2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.
3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.
4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.
5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.
By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old carpet layer presented with acute pain and swelling affecting his left knee. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history includes haemochromatosis for which he receives regular venesection.
Examination reveals a hot, tender, swollen left knee.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Knee aspirate: 12 000 white blood cells/ml (majority neutrophils); rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. No growth on culture.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Knee Aspirate: Pseudogout, Gout, prepatellar Bursitis, Septic Arthritis, Osteoarthritis
A knee aspirate was performed on a patient who presented with knee pain. The aspirate revealed positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals, indicating pseudogout. This condition is associated with haemochromatosis and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, corticosteroid injections, or short courses of oral corticosteroids. Colchicine may also be an option for some patients. Familial pyrophosphate arthropathy, a rare form of the condition, may be linked to mutations in genes related to inorganic phosphate transport.
Gout is a differential diagnosis for this case, but the knee aspirate would reveal negatively birefringent crystals. prepatellar bursitis, a sterile condition not associated with crystals or raised white cell counts, can be ruled out. Septic arthritis would present with a systemic inflammatory response and rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals would not be present. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition and would not present acutely, and joint aspirate would not show rhomboid-shaped birefringent crystals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Man with Purpura and Haematuria
The patient in question presents with a purpuric rash on the back, buttocks, and extensor surfaces of the lower limbs, as well as haematuria. The following is a differential diagnosis of possible conditions that could be causing these symptoms.
Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
The clinical presentation is entirely typical of HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria. It should be noted that platelet numbers are usually normal or raised in HSP, so thrombocytopaenia is not expected.Haemophilia A
This condition is not likely as it results in joint and muscle bleeding, which is not present in this case. Additionally, haemophilia would not cause haematuria.Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
While purpura is a symptom of ITP, a reduced platelet count is typically present. Without a discussion of platelet levels, it is difficult to justify a diagnosis of ITP. Additionally, ITP would not result in haematuria.Leukaemia
If acute leukaemia were causing the symptoms, thrombocytopaenia might be expected. However, the clinical presentation is more compatible with HSP, and thrombocytopaenia alone would not result in haematuria.Thalassaemia trait
There is no indication in the history to suggest this condition, and it would not result in purpura. Thalassaemia trait is typically asymptomatic.In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Treatment
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.
Temporal arthritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arthritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.
If temporal arthritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of bilateral knee pain that has persisted for 4 months, despite taking paracetamol PRN. Her recent knee X-rays reveal moderate degenerative changes, and she has requested physiotherapy. What additional treatment should be initiated while waiting for physiotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs)
Explanation:Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) are a good option for patients experiencing knee or hand symptoms. Regular paracetamol or oral NSAIDs are not provided as choices. Co-codamol is effective for moderate-to-severe pain, but should only be used after trying regular paracetamol and NSAIDs due to potential side-effects. Acupuncture is not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment as studies have shown little to no effectiveness. Capsaicin cream can be used if other treatments are ineffective. Glucosamine and chondroitin are not recommended by NICE for osteoarthritis treatment due to inconsistent research outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he developed diarrhoea that lasted for 1 week. He returned to the United States and, a few weeks later, visited his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of pain in his knee and both heels. His eyes have become red and he has developed some painless, red, confluent plaques on his hands and feet, which his PCP has diagnosed as psoriasis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Reactive Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Reactive arthritis is a condition characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It typically occurs 1-3 weeks after an initial infection, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter being the most common causative agents. In addition to the classic triad of symptoms, patients may also experience keratoderma blennorrhagica and buccal and lingual ulcers.
When considering differential diagnoses, it is important to note that inflammatory arthritides can be seropositive or seronegative. Seronegative spondyloarthritides include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and gonococcal arthritis.
Gonococcal arthritis is a form of septic arthritis that typically affects a single joint and presents with a hot, red joint and systemic signs of infection. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, does not present with any clinical features in this patient. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, which is less likely in a patient with a recent history of travel and diarrhea. Psoriatic arthritis is unlikely to present simultaneously with psoriasis in a young, previously healthy patient without any prior history of either condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.
Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.
What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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