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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Medial collateral ligament sprain

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old man complains of left knee pain, dysuria, and a painful right...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man complains of left knee pain, dysuria, and a painful right eye. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand where he had unprotected sex. Upon examination, his left knee is slightly swollen and painful with limited range of motion. The right conjunctiva is inflamed. His respiratory rate is 18/min, heart rate is 78 bpm, and temperature is 37.6 ÂșC. Joint aspiration reveals turbid synovial fluid with a white cell count of 35,000 cells/mm3 (<200) and 65% polymorphonuclear cells (<30%). Culture results are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a condition that can develop after an infection, where the organism responsible cannot be detected in the joint. A patient who presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, and has recently traveled, is highly suspicious of reactive arthritis. This condition is often associated with sexually transmitted diseases, with Chlamydia trachomatis being the most likely causative organism. However, the synovial fluid culture is negative as the organism cannot be recovered from the joint.

      Gonococcal arthritis, on the other hand, is caused by disseminated gonococcal infection. It typically presents with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome and can progress to septic arthritis if left untreated. While it is a good differential diagnosis for young, sexually active males with mono- or oligoarthritis, it does not explain the other symptoms of dysuria and painful eye movements.

      Gout is unlikely in a young male without predisposing factors and would not account for the patient’s urethritis and conjunctivitis. Rheumatoid arthritis, which typically presents as symmetrical arthritis affecting small joints such as PIP, MCP, or wrist joints, is also an unlikely diagnosis. Additionally, keratoconjunctivitis sicca is the most common ocular complication associated with rheumatoid arthritis, rather than conjunctivitis.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right knee. He has never experienced this before. Upon examination, the joint fluid is extracted and sent to the lab for analysis. The rheumatology team suspects pseudogout. What characteristics can help differentiate this condition from gout?

      Your Answer: Chondrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Chondrocalcinosis is a useful factor in distinguishing between pseudogout and gout. Linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage seen on a knee x-ray are indicative of pseudogout, but not particularly associated with gout. Therefore, the presence of chondrocalcinosis can be used to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Age is not a determining factor in the diagnosis of gout or pseudogout. In this case, the patient’s age of 64 years does not provide any significant information to sway the diagnosis in either direction.

      The presence of crystals is not a distinguishing factor between gout and pseudogout, as both conditions involve crystals. However, the type of crystals differs between the two. Pseudogout crystals are weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped, while gout crystals are negatively birefringent.

      Both gout and pseudogout typically respond well to colchicine for acute pain management, so this is not a useful factor in distinguishing between the two conditions.

      Increased warmth of the affected joint is not a reliable factor in distinguishing between gout and pseudogout, as it may be present in both conditions.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while playing basketball. He reports hearing a loud 'pop' and experiencing severe pain in his right knee, causing him to fall to the ground. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee and feels like it may give out. Upon examination, the knee is visibly swollen. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The sudden popping sound that occurred during athletic activity followed by knee pain, swelling, and instability is indicative of an ACL injury. This is the most likely answer based on the given information. A ruptured patella tendon would result in a high riding patella, while a ruptured medial meniscus would cause catching or locking of the knee. A ruptured posterior cruciate ligament is less common and would require further testing to differentiate from an ACL injury. However, based on the scenario described, an ACL injury is the most probable cause.

      The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in his left forefoot over the past three weeks. He is an avid runner, typically running for two to three hours daily, but has never experienced this issue before. There is no history of direct injury to the foot. Upon examination, he is afebrile with a pulse rate of 88 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. Point tenderness is noted on the left foot, but there is no swelling. X-ray results reveal periosteal thickening, and a diagnosis of metatarsal stress fracture is made. Which metatarsal is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Second

      Explanation:

      Metatarsal stress fractures are commonly caused by repeated stress over time and typically occur in healthy athletes, such as runners. The second metatarsal shaft is the most frequent site of these fractures due to its firm fixation at the tarsometatarsal joint, which results in increased rigidity and a higher risk of fracture. Diagnosis is often based on clinical history and examination, as early x-rays may not show any abnormalities. The first metatarsal is the least commonly fractured due to its larger size, which requires greater force to break. On the other hand, the fifth metatarsal is the most commonly fractured as a result of direct trauma or crush injuries.

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis and his condition is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis and his condition is not well controlled. His rheumatologist suggests starting him on a new medication. In cases of predominantly axial disease, how many non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs must be ineffective before anti-TNF alpha inhibitors can be considered?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      In cases of axial ankylosing spondylitis that have not responded to two different NSAIDs and meet the criteria for active disease on two separate occasions 12 weeks apart, the use of anti-TNF alpha inhibitors is recommended. Additionally, physiotherapy should be incorporated throughout the treatment process.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man came to see a rheumatologist due to worsening joint pain,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man came to see a rheumatologist due to worsening joint pain, particularly in his hands and feet. The rheumatologist requested an x-ray of his hands and feet, which revealed abnormalities including a 'plantar spur' and 'pencil and cup' deformity. What do these x-ray findings suggest?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is characterized by specific x-ray features known as ‘plantar spur’ and ‘pencil and cup’ deformity. In contrast, osteoarthritis displays ‘LOSS’ changes, including loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. Rheumatoid arthritis presents with ‘LESS’ changes, such as loss of joint space, erosions, soft bones, and soft tissue swelling. Ankylosing spondylitis is identified by sacroiliitis on x-ray.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her right hand and left wrist. The affected joints are also stiff, erythematosus, and warm to touch. She denies any recent injury to the joints and is otherwise healthy. Upon joint aspirate, the sample appears turbid and yellow with a WBC count of 25,000/mmÂł and 70% neutrophils. Viscosity is reduced and polarised light microscopy is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The joint aspirate in rheumatoid arthritis typically displays a high count of white blood cells, with a majority being neutrophils. The appearance is usually cloudy and yellow, and there are no crystals present.

      In contrast, gout would reveal needle-shaped urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light microscopy. Osteoarthritis would show fewer white blood cells and a lower proportion of neutrophils, with a clear appearance. It is more commonly found in larger weight-bearing joints. Pseudogout would display rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent.

      Therefore, the correct answer is rheumatoid arthritis, which is characterised by an elevated white cell count, predominantly neutrophils, and a cloudy appearance.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.

      Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonniĂšre deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 51-year-old male presents with painful colour changes of his hands precipitated by...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old male presents with painful colour changes of his hands precipitated by cold. He also reports difficulty swallowing and has noticed tightness of his skin especially on his face and his fingers.

      What is the most appropriate test from the options below?

      Your Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      The symptoms indicate the possibility of scleroderma, and a detection of anti-centromere antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that has persisted for the past week. She reports feeling pain on her left temple, which intensifies when she touches her head or brushes her hair, and discomfort in her jaw when eating. She is anxious because she recently had a brief episode of vision loss, which she describes as a dark curtain descending. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Swollen pale disc with blurred margins

      Explanation:

      The correct fundoscopy finding for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION) is a swollen pale disc with blurred margins. This occurs due to a loss of blood supply to the optic nerve, which is commonly caused by temporal arthritis. It is important to recognize this finding as urgent IV steroids are required to prevent permanent visual loss. A cherry red spot on the macula is not associated with temporal arthritis, as it is a sign of central retinal artery occlusion. Macula edema and cupping of the optic disc are also not typically associated with temporal arthritis.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pain and stiffness in both knees and hands for a few months. She also reports swelling in her left index finger. Apart from hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine, and a cough that is currently being investigated, she is in good health and has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor notices dactylitis in her left index finger, as well as general pain and limited mobility in her fingers. X-rays of her hands reveal erosions in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint on both sides. What diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      The presence of DIP joint swelling and dactylitis in inflammatory arthritis suggests a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. Although there is not always a clear correlation between psoriatic arthritis and cutaneous psoriasis, arthritic symptoms often appear before skin lesions. While there may be some overlap with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of DIP joint disease and dactylitis are more indicative of psoriatic arthritis. Gout is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents as acute and monoarticular or oligoarticular, without the other symptoms seen here. Osteoarthritis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents asymmetrically in larger joints and does not typically present with dactylitis or the findings seen on X-ray. Rheumatoid arthritis is a possibility, but a blood test for anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP) should be performed to confirm the diagnosis, as these antibodies are highly specific to rheumatoid arthritis and are usually absent in psoriatic arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that extends to the buttocks for the past 3 months. The pain is most severe upon waking up, but cycling seems to alleviate it. The patient denies any injury but is an avid cyclist. Additionally, the patient experiences fatigue. The patient had Chlamydia and was treated with doxycycline 8 months ago. The patient has a history of anxiety and does not take any regular medication, but ibuprofen helps alleviate the pain. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Exercise is typically beneficial for patients with inflammatory back pain, such as those with ankylosing spondylitis. This condition is more common in males and presents with symptoms such as morning stiffness, back pain lasting over 3 months, and improvement with exercise. Inflammation can also affect the sacroiliac joints, causing buttock pain, and patients may experience fatigue. Lumbar spinal stenosis is an unlikely differential as it presents with back and buttock pain due to nerve compression, and patients may have leg weakness. Psoriatic arthritis can also cause spondyloarthritis, but it typically presents with peripheral arthritis and/or dactylitis, and patients may have a history of psoriasis. Reactive arthritis is also an unlikely differential as it typically presents 1-4 weeks after infection, and patients may have other symptoms such as enthesitis, peripheral arthritis, conjunctivitis, skin lesions, and urethritis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 13 - As an FY2 in the ED, you assess a 32-year-old woman who has...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY2 in the ED, you assess a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing right wrist pain for the past 6 weeks. The pain has been gradually increasing in intensity. She has no significant medical history, except for a previous visit to this ED 4 months ago. During that visit, she fell off her skateboard and landed awkwardly on the same wrist. However, the x-ray at the time was normal, and she was discharged home with safety netting advice and a repeat x-ray scheduled, although no image is available on the system. When asked about the follow-up, she mentions that she had no pain at the time and wanted to avoid an unnecessary trip to the hospital during the COVID-19 pandemic. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Request an outpatient MRI wrist with GP follow up in 1 week

      Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of a scaphoid fracture is falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH), which is the mechanism of injury reported by this patient. Although the initial x-ray of the wrist was normal, it is recommended that patients with suspected scaphoid fractures undergo a repeat x-ray (with dedicated scaphoid views) after 7-10 days, as these fractures may not appear on initial imaging.

      Avascular necrosis is a potential complication of scaphoid fractures, which can cause gradually worsening pain in the affected wrist over time. If this occurs, referral to an orthopaedics team for further investigation (such as an MRI) and possible surgical intervention is necessary.

      In this case, referral to a hand clinic for physiotherapy is not appropriate, as the patient requires further investigation and management. However, providing safety netting advice and a leaflet before discharge from the emergency department is good practice. It is important to refer the patient to the orthopaedics team before discharge.

      The FRAX score is a tool used to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing an osteoporosis-related fracture, but it is not relevant to the diagnosis or management of avascular necrosis.

      While MRI is the preferred imaging modality for avascular necrosis of the scaphoid, it is not appropriate to request an outpatient MRI with GP follow-up in one week. Instead, it is best to refer the patient directly to the orthopaedics team for specialist input and timely management, including arranging and following up on any necessary imaging and deciding on the need for surgical intervention.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old Sri Lankan male comes to you with a complaint of low...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Sri Lankan male comes to you with a complaint of low back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 6 months. He reports that the pain is particularly bad before he wakes up in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed increasing stiffness in his right wrist and left third metacarpal joints. Upon examination, you observe reduced spinal movements in lateral spinal flexion and rotation, as well as a positive Schober's test. The patient has not received any prior treatment for his back pain and has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy and NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) patients can often find relief from their symptoms through the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) alone, according to the most recent guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR). In fact, continuous NSAID therapy is recommended for those with active and persistent symptoms, as it has been shown to slow the progression of the disease. While systemic glucocorticoids are not effective for managing AS, intra-articular steroid injections may be helpful for peripheral joint or enthesitis issues. Of traditional disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), only sulphasalazine has been found to be effective for peripheral joint involvement, but it does not work for those with axial joint involvement. For those with insufficiently controlled symptoms, TNF-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept, infliximab, or adalimumab are recommended, without significant difference in efficacy between the three.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She is worried that her SLE is flaring up and has a tendency to develop health anxiety due to her condition. As lupus can affect multiple organs and systems, she frequently visits her GP practice whenever she experiences new symptoms. The GP conducts some blood tests, which reveal the following results:
      - Hb: 111 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - MCV: 86 fl (84-96)
      - WBC: 12.3 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 118 ”mol/L (55-120)
      - eGFR: 90 ml/min/1.73mÂČ (>/= 90)
      - CRP: 88 mg/L (<5)
      - ESR: 34 mm/hr (0-20)

      What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Flare of her SLE

      Correct Answer: Underlying infection

      Explanation:

      If a patient with SLE has an elevated CRP, it could indicate the presence of an infection. The patient in question does not have AKI and her kidney function is normal. Although she has a slight normocytic anemia, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms. Fibromyalgia is common in SLE patients, but the elevated CRP in this case suggests an underlying infection rather than fibromyalgia. The patient’s elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels indicate the presence of an infection, rather than a lupus flare.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man presents with weakness of the thighs and shoulders leading to...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with weakness of the thighs and shoulders leading to difficulty climbing stairs and lifting objects. He has also noticed a purple-coloured rash, most pronounced on his face and affecting the eyelids. On examination, he has itchy and painful papules over the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints. He is subsequently diagnosed with dermatomyositis.

      What investigations will be included in the next steps of his management?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound MCP joints

      Correct Answer: CT chest/abdomen/pelvis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is often associated with an underlying malignancy, making it crucial to thoroughly investigate patients for cancer. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the most reliable and efficient method for detecting any potential malignancy. While a chest x-ray may identify lung cancer, it is not as accurate and may miss tumors in other areas. An MRI of the brain is unlikely to be helpful as intracerebral pathology is not typically associated with dermatomyositis. The most common cancers associated with dermatomyositis are lung, breast, and ovarian cancer. A PET scan may be used for staging and detecting metastases after an initial CT scan. An ultrasound of the MCP joints is unnecessary for diagnosis confirmation and would not be a reliable method for evaluating Gottron papules. A biopsy may be necessary if diagnostic uncertainty remains.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old teacher presents to the emergency department with a complaint of shin...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old teacher presents to the emergency department with a complaint of shin pain that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. The pain is specifically located over the tibia and is relieved by rest. However, she is worried as she has a hiking trip planned for the weekend. She has not undergone any hospital investigations yet. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness over the tibia. She expresses her apologies for coming to the emergency department, stating that her GP could not offer an appointment for the next 2 weeks and she needs advice before the weekend.

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undertake an x-ray of the legs

      Explanation:

      Tibial stress syndrome is the probable diagnosis, but it is important to rule out a stress fracture of the tibia before discharging the patient. An x-ray of the legs should be ordered as the initial investigation, even though symptoms may precede x-ray changes by a few weeks. The Ottawa ankle rules cannot be used to determine if an x-ray is necessary for a tibial stress fracture. While CT and MRI are more sensitive, an x-ray should be performed first, and further imaging may be required if there is no definitive answer. A plaster cast would not be appropriate at this stage, and an orthopaedic referral is not necessary. If the x-ray rules out a tibial stress fracture, an appropriate management plan would be to rest, elevate the leg, and repeatedly apply ice packs to the affected area.

      Stress fractures are small hairline fractures that can occur due to repetitive activity and loading of normal bone. Although they can be painful, they are typically not displaced and do not cause surrounding soft tissue injury. In some cases, stress fractures may present late, and callus formation may be visible on radiographs. Treatment for stress fractures may vary depending on the severity of the injury. In cases where the injury is associated with severe pain and presents at an earlier stage, immobilization may be necessary. However, injuries that present later may not require formal immobilization and can be treated with tailored immobilization specific to the site of injury.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old female patient visits your clinic with complaints of mouth and genital...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits your clinic with complaints of mouth and genital ulcers, accompanied by redness in her eyes. You suspect Behcet's syndrome as the possible diagnosis. What skin manifestation would provide the strongest evidence to support your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Behcet’s syndrome is linked to several skin symptoms, including genital ulcers, aphthous ulcers, acne-like lesions, and painful red lesions known as erythema nodosum. These lesions are caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat and are commonly found on the shins. In contrast, erythema marginatum is a rare rash characterized by pink rings on the extensor surfaces and is associated with rheumatic fever. Asteatotic eczema, also known as crazy paving eczema, has a unique appearance and is linked to hypothyroidism and lymphoma.

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.

      The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg over the past 6 months. He also reports mild weakness in the affected leg during any activity. The pain travels down the back of his left leg and worsens when walking, causing him to stop and rest frequently. However, the pain improves when he sits or crouches down. The patient has no history of smoking or cardiovascular issues and has a body mass index of 19.0 kg/m2. There are no abnormalities found during back and neurological examinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar canal spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      When a patient complains of claudication, spinal stenosis should be considered as a possible cause.

      If the patient experiences leg pain on one side that improves with rest, certain factors in their medical history may indicate spinal stenosis rather than peripheral arterial disease. These factors include pain relief when sitting or crouching, leg weakness, no history of smoking, and no cardiovascular issues. Ankylosing spondylitis, which primarily causes back pain, is more common in younger patients and is unlikely to cause leg pain. Conversion disorder, a psychiatric condition that presents with unexplained musculoskeletal symptoms, is typically diagnosed after ruling out physical causes, but the patient’s history suggests spinal stenosis rather than a psychiatric cause. While peripheral arterial disease is a possible differential diagnosis, the absence of cardiac risk factors and the pain-relieving factors suggest spinal stenosis. If the patient experiences claudication pain after walking 100 meters or more, peripheral arterial disease may be more likely.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in his left eye. Upon further questioning, he reports that he has also had a temporal headache for around 2 weeks and has felt generally unwell. He denies any jaw pain when chewing but does have some scalp tenderness. Blood tests are taken which show an ESR of 65mm/hr.
      He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and he smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man suffers an open tibial fracture following an incident with industrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man suffers an open tibial fracture following an incident with industrial equipment. The fracture is a simple oblique break in his distal tibia, accompanied by an 8 cm ragged wound. Despite this, the limb's neurovascular function remains intact. What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate wound debridement and application of spanning external fixation device

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to delay the definitive management of open fractures until the soft tissues have fully recovered. In the case of heavily contaminated wounds, such as those caused by farmyard equipment, they are automatically classified as at least Gustilo grade IIIa. Therefore, it is necessary to perform wound debridement and ‘mini washouts’ in the operating theatre immediately. For contaminated wounds, this should be done as soon as possible, within 12 hours for high-energy injuries, and within 24 hours for all other injuries. If definitive surgical fixation is performed initially, it should only be done if it can be followed by definitive soft tissue coverage. However, in most cases, an external fixation device is used as an interim measure while soft tissue coverage is achieved, which should be done within 72 hours.

      Fracture Management: Understanding Types and Treatment

      Fractures can occur due to trauma, stress, or pathological reasons. Diagnosis involves evaluating the site and type of injury, as well as associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are important in assessing changes in bone length, distal bone angulation, rotational effects, and foreign material. Fracture types include oblique, comminuted, segmental, transverse, and spiral. It is also important to distinguish open from closed injuries, with the Gustilo and Anderson classification system being the most common for open fractures. Management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, managing infection, and debriding open fractures within 6 hours of injury.

      To ensure proper fracture management, it is crucial to understand the different types of fractures and their causes. Diagnosis involves not only evaluating the fracture itself, but also any associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are an important tool in assessing the extent of the injury. It is also important to distinguish between open and closed fractures, with open fractures requiring immediate attention and debridement. Proper management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, and managing infection. By understanding the different types of fractures and their treatment, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients with fractures.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock pain that radiates through his thighs...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock pain that radiates through his thighs and calves. The pain worsens with standing and walking, limiting his ability to walk for more than 10 minutes or 2 to 3 blocks. However, the pain is relieved by sitting or forward flexion of the spine. There is no history of bladder or bowel dysfunction, and motor and sensory neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      AS, also known as ankylosing spondylitis, is a type of arthritis that primarily affects the spine. It causes inflammation and stiffness in the joints between the vertebrae, leading to fusion of the spine over time. AS can also affect other joints, such as the hips, shoulders, and knees, and can cause fatigue and eye inflammation. It is a chronic condition that typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in men than women. There is no cure for AS, but treatment options such as medication, exercise, and physical therapy can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man of African origin visits his doctor with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man of African origin visits his doctor with a complaint of experiencing extremely cold and white fingers at random times of the day, especially in winter and outdoors. During the examination, the doctor observes small white deposits on his arms, a large number of spider naevi on his cheeks, and thickened skin on the top of his hands, making it difficult for him to straighten out his fingers. Currently, the color and temperature of his fingers are normal. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following symptoms is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysphagia

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits all the symptoms of CREST syndrome except for dysphagia caused by oesophageal dysmotility. These symptoms include calcinosis (white deposits), Raynaud’s phenomenon (cold, white fingertips triggered by cold weather), sclerodactyly (thickened skin on top of hands and inability to straighten fingers), and telangiectasia (excessive number of spider naevi). Gottron’s papules and dilated capillary loops are characteristic of dermatomyositis, while limited scleroderma does not typically involve internal organs, making glomerulonephritis unlikely. Although Sjogren’s syndrome can overlap with other connective tissue diseases, the patient’s lack of dysphagia makes this diagnosis less likely than CREST syndrome.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - The existence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody indicates which of the following conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • The existence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody indicates which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.

      Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.

      In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.

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  • Question 25 - Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) are most commonly associated with which medical condition?...

    Incorrect

    • Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) are most commonly associated with which medical condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome

      Explanation:

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.

      His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ÂșC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.

      To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient complains of a painful wrist that has been bothering her for 6 weeks. During the examination, she experiences pain on the radial side of the wrist when the thumb is forcefully adducted and flexed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the tendons on the lateral side of the wrist and thumb leads to de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. To diagnose this condition, Finkelstein’s test can be performed by quickly deviating the hand medially. If there is a sharp pain along the distal radius, it is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his ankle. He reports that whilst playing basketball that evening he landed awkwardly on his left foot after jumping for a rebound. He felt a pop at the time of impact and his ankle immediately became swollen.

      On examination:

      Heart rate: 80/minute; Respiratory rate: 16/minute; Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg; Oxygen saturations: 99%; Temperature: 36.8 ÂșC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.

      Left ankle: swollen, erythematosus and disaffirmed. Skin intact. Extremely tender upon palpation of the lateral malleolus. Difficulty weight-bearing and dorsiflexing the ankle. Sensation intact. Pulses present.

      Examination of the right ankle and lower limb is unremarkable.

      X-rays of the left ankle and foot are carried out which demonstrate a fractured lateral malleolus and associated dislocation of the ankle joint.

      What term is used to describe this pattern of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture

      Explanation:

      The patient has a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint and a fracture of the radius. It is important to differentiate this from a Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal ulna and a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint. To remember the difference, one can associate the name of the fracture with the bone that is broken: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles’ fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Boxer’s fracture, which involves a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal with volar displacement of the metacarpal head.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - A 78-year-old female complains of stiffness and pain in her pelvic and shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old female complains of stiffness and pain in her pelvic and shoulder girdle, along with painful mastication. She consumes around 12 units of alcohol per week and takes atorvastatin and amlodipine. Her ESR is found to be 90mm/hour. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and high ESR levels suggest that the patient may have polymyalgia rheumatica, with the added indication of painful mastication pointing towards possible temporal arthritis. Immediate treatment with high doses of steroids is crucial. To distinguish between polymyalgia rheumatica and statin-induced myopathy, ESR levels are typically measured. A significantly elevated ESR level would indicate polymyalgia rheumatica, while a normal ESR level would suggest statin myopathy.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old man presents with a history of worsening low back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with a history of worsening low back pain over the past year. He reports that the pain is more severe after prolonged periods of sitting and experiences stiffness in the morning lasting up to 30 minutes. Despite being an active footballer and gym-goer, he has been troubled by pain in his right Achilles tendon, limiting his physical activity. The GP has referred him to a rheumatologist and ordered lumbar spine and sacroiliac joint x-rays. What collection of findings is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of vertebrae

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that typically affects males between the ages of 20-30 and is characterized by low back pain that worsens at rest and improves with activity, as well as early morning stiffness lasting more than 15 minutes. This condition is often associated with Achilles tendinopathy (enthesitis). Radiographic imaging commonly shows subchondral erosions and sclerosis in the sacroiliac joints (sacroiliitis), as well as vertebral body squaring, ligament calcification, and syndesmophytes in the lumbar spine. Over time, these changes can lead to the formation of a ‘bamboo spine’. Block vertebra is a different condition that involves a failure of separation of adjacent vertebral bodies and is not typically seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and subchondral cysts, while rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by marginal erosions, soft tissue swelling, and periarticular osteoporosis. Gout is characterized by soft tissue swelling, punched-out bone lesions, and overhanging sclerotic margins.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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