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  • Question 1 - You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining...

    Correct

    • You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining that a few hours ago he broke up with his girlfriend and while having an argument took 20 of his mother's tablets. He is worried and says he is experiencing muffled hearing with bouts of ringing on both sides. Vital signs were all normal apart from a respiratory rate of 28 per minute.
      An overdose of which medication is most likely?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Tinnitus could be an early indication of an aspirin overdose, as salicylate toxicity can cause respiratory alkalosis and subsequently metabolic acidosis within a few hours. The patient’s symptoms suggest the former, and the presence of tinnitus further supports this diagnosis.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.3
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  • Question 2 - In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable...

    Incorrect

    • In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable initial oral treatment option?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatments for Seizures: A Guide to Medications

      When it comes to treating seizures, there are several medications available. However, not all medications are suitable for every type of seizure. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used medications and their recommended uses:

      Valproate: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for children, young people, and adults with newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures. However, it is important to be aware of the teratogenic and developmental risks associated with valproate.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for new-onset focal seizures, but not for generalized seizures.

      Topiramate: While topiramate is not routinely used as a first-line treatment for any type of seizure, it can be used as an adjunct.

      Phenytoin: This medication is useful as a rescue medication in status epilepticus, but should not be considered first-line for any seizure type due to troublesome long-term side effects.

      Phenobarbital: This medication is now rarely used for seizures due to its unacceptable side effects when compared to more modern alternatives.

      Overall, the first-choice treatments for primary generalized epilepsy are lamotrigine and valproate. For partial (localization-related) epilepsy, carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, and oxcarbazepine are all reasonable first choices.

      In summary, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for an individual’s specific type of seizure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.6
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung cancer and a potassium (K+) level of 6.1 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l). The lab report indicates that there was a delay in processing this sample. His last K+ level recorded two days ago was 4.2 mmol/l. An electrocardiogram (ECG), urine output and observations all provide normal results.
      What is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Repeat sample immediately

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where hyperkalaemia is suspected, it is important to verify whether the elevated potassium levels are due to true hyperkalaemia or an erroneous result. This can be caused by a delay in sample processing, venepuncture technique, or haemolysis of the blood sample.

      If hyperkalaemia is confirmed, treatment should be initiated without delay. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride may be given to protect the myocardium in cases of severe hyperkalaemia. Insulin and dextrose are usually given to drive potassium into the cells.

      However, before prescribing any medications, it is crucial to repeat the sample immediately to confirm the diagnosis of true hyperkalaemia. Delaying treatment may lead to fatal arrhythmia. Therefore, it is essential to manage suspected hyperkalaemia with urgency and accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height?

      Your Answer: 18 - 22 cm

      Correct Answer: 22 - 26 cm

      Explanation:

      The symphysis-fundal height in centimeters after 20 weeks of gestation is equal to the number of weeks of gestation.

      The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for the last month without any apparent cause. During examination, she experiences pain when resisting wrist extension while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medial epicondylitis

      Correct Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      235.5
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was discharged from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve issues were identified.

      Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is only slight peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist

      Explanation:

      The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash that has been present for 1 day. She had visited her family doctor 2 days ago with symptoms of a cold and a sore throat and was given a course of oral antibiotics. Upon examination, she has a mild fever of 37.8ºC and a widespread maculopapular rash on her face and torso. Her tonsils are enlarged and erythematous, and she has palpable tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monospot test

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, a viral illness caused by the Ebstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and general malaise, as well as palpable cervical lymphadenopathy and an erythematous throat. The illness is more common in teenagers and is often spread through respiratory droplets, earning it the nickname kissing disease. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by their GP, which can cause a non-specific maculopapular rash in patients with glandular fever. The diagnosis is typically confirmed through a Monospot blood test, which detects the presence of heterophil antibodies produced in response to the virus.

      An anti-streptolysin O titre test can detect streptococcal infections, but it does not explain the patient’s rash following antibiotic use. A full blood count can be helpful in diagnosing glandular fever, as it often shows a lymphocytosis, but the Monospot test is more definitive. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for viral PCR can diagnose viral infections like measles, but this is less likely in a teenager in the UK due to vaccination. A sputum culture is not useful in diagnosing glandular fever, as the patient does not have a cough or sputum production.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - An 81-year-old man who is a resident in a nursing home reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man who is a resident in a nursing home reports feeling tired and cold all the time. Blood tests are arranged which show the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 12.8 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
      Free T4 (thyroxine) 6.8 pmol/l 12.0-22.0 pmol/l
      Free T3 (triiodothyronine) 2.6 pmol/l 3.1–6.8 pmol/l
      Which of the following is the best action to take?
      Select the SINGLE best action from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 25 µg once daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypothyroidism in an Elderly Patient: Recommended Treatment and Monitoring

      For an elderly patient with overt hypothyroidism, immediate treatment is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). The recommended starting dose of levothyroxine is 25 µg once daily, with regular monitoring of response every 3-4 weeks until a stable TSH has been achieved. After that, a blood test should be performed at 4-6 months and annually thereafter. The goal of treatment is to resolve symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism, normalize TSH and T3/T4 levels, and avoid overtreatment, especially in elderly patients who are at risk of developing cardiac disease. Inappropriate treatments, such as carbimazole or radio-iodine therapy, should be avoided. It is crucial to avoid overtreatment, as it can worsen the patient’s condition and put them at risk of developing myxoedema coma, which can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as having a fishy smell and a white colour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms and she denies pregnancy. She is sexually active with one regular partner of three years and has the Mirena coil in situ.
      On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. The bimanual examination is unremarkable with no adnexal tenderness elicited. Her vaginal pH is 5.
      What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal swab for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis and Urinary Tract Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on Amsel’s criteria, which includes thin, white-colored vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy. A vaginal swab for microscopy and culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis, especially if the patient meets two of the four criteria.

      On the other hand, urine microscopy and culture are used to diagnose urinary tract infections, which share some symptoms with sexually transmitted infections. However, the presence of vaginal discharge makes a sexually transmitted infection more likely, and alternative investigations are more specific.

      Blood culture and hysteroscopy and culture are not indicated in the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Blood culture is not usually necessary, while hysteroscopy and biopsy are invasive procedures used to diagnose endometrial disorders.

      Lastly, nucleic acid amplification testing is used to diagnose chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Although chlamydia may cause symptoms similar to bacterial vaginosis, the presence of increased vaginal pH makes bacterial vaginosis more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and feeling cold for the past two months. She has become increasingly distressed by these symptoms and reports a recent weight gain of approximately 5kg. Which of her regular medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism can be caused by long-term use of lithium.

      The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, and the only medication on the list that can lead to this condition is lithium. While the other drugs listed may cause individual side effects that could contribute to the patient’s presentation, none of them would produce all of the symptoms described.

      Amlodipine may cause weight gain due to fluid retention, but it is unlikely to cause as much as 5 kg, and it would not cause mood changes or fatigue to the extent described. Bisoprolol can cause significant fatigue, but it would not cause weight gain. Citalopram may cause significant weight gain and mood changes, but it is unlikely to cause the patient to feel cold. Atorvastatin can also cause weight gain, but this is rare.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She says that her stools float...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She says that her stools float and are difficult to flush away.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.08 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Albumin 29 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 76–98 fl
      Coeliac disease is suspected.
      Which of the following is the initial investigation of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Investigation of Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check immunoglobulin A (IgA) levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.

      The treatment of choice for coeliac disease is a lifelong gluten-free diet, avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.

      While faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease. However, this would not be the initial investigation of choice as it is invasive. An anti-TTG test is more sensitive and specific than an anti-gliadin test in untreated coeliac disease. Magnesium (Mg2+) levels may be abnormal in coeliac disease, but this would not be diagnostic and therefore not the first investigation of choice.

      In summary, the diagnosis of coeliac disease requires a combination of clinical presentation, laboratory investigations, and small bowel biopsy if necessary. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 12 - What is the factor that is most likely to stimulate renin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the factor that is most likely to stimulate renin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their roles in regulating fluid balance

      Renin, ACTH, ANP, and ADH are hormones that play important roles in regulating fluid balance in the body. Renin is secreted by the kidneys in response to a decrease in blood volume, and it stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to increase extracellular volume and arterial vasoconstriction. ACTH, secreted by the pituitary gland, increases production and release of cortisol by the adrenal gland. ANP, secreted by heart myocytes, acts as a vasodilator to reduce water, sodium, and adipose loads on the circulatory system, counteracting the effects of the renin-angiotensin system. ADH, also known as vasopressin, increases water permeability in the kidneys and increases peripheral vascular resistance to increase arterial blood pressure. Understanding the roles of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper fluid balance in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with stable congestive heart failure. As you review his repeat prescriptions, you consider his new diagnosis. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, and erectile dysfunction. What is the most crucial medication to avoid in patients with chronic heart failure among his current medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they have the potential to worsen the condition by causing fluid retention, particularly diclofenac.

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.

      To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 16 - What advice would you give a young man about his alcohol consumption? ...

    Incorrect

    • What advice would you give a young man about his alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more

      Explanation:

      Please limit your alcohol consumption to a maximum of 21 units per week, with no more than 3 units in a single day.

      Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir

      Explanation:

      Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank haematemesis. She had been discharged just two months ago after receiving treatment for bleeding oesophageal varices. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for endoscopy after resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old female who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with a painful and swollen right calf. After a Doppler scan, it is confirmed that she has a deep vein thrombosis. What anticoagulant is recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin

      Explanation:

      While the first trimester poses a higher risk of teratogenic effects from warfarin, most healthcare providers would opt for low molecular weight heparin in such cases. Additionally, the possibility of peripartum hemorrhage and the difficulty in reversing the effects of warfarin in such a scenario should also be taken into account.

      During pregnancy, the body undergoes changes that make it more prone to blood clots. This is known as a hypercoagulable state and is most common in the last trimester. The increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen, along with a decrease in protein S, contribute to this state. Additionally, the growing uterus can press on the inferior vena cava, leading to venous stasis in the legs.

      When it comes to managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy, warfarin is not recommended due to its potential harm to the fetus. Instead, subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin is preferred over intravenous heparin as it has a lower risk of bleeding and thrombocytopenia. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DVT/PE, such as leg swelling, pain, and shortness of breath, and to seek medical attention promptly if they experience any of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past four to five months. His father passed away a few years ago due to a lung disease. During the examination, the doctor notices an elevated jugular venous pressure and a palpable heave at the left sternal edge.

      What is the most probable provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Familial Primary Pulmonary Hypertension

      Familial primary pulmonary hypertension is a rare condition that presents with breathlessness, fatigue, angina, or syncope. It has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance with incomplete penetrance and physical signs such as elevated JVP, left parasternal heave, pansystolic murmur, right ventricular S4, and peripheral edema. Without treatment, average survival is less than three years. While tricuspid regurgitation may be present, it is best explained in the context of a diagnosis of familial primary pulmonary hypertension. Chronic pulmonary thromboembolism is a more common differential diagnosis that should be considered. Constrictive pericarditis and pulmonary venous hypertension are unlikely diagnoses as they do not run in families. Clinical management requires a specialist with considerable expertise in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis for a few years...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis for a few years has been struggling with increased muscle stiffness and trouble with fluid movements. Despite taking baclofen for a year, there has been no improvement. What medication should be considered next to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      Spasticity in multiple sclerosis is caused by demyelination along the nerves that control movement, resulting in stiffness that can sometimes be helpful but can also become painful. Physiotherapy exercises are the simplest and most effective treatment, but first-line medications such as baclofen and gabapentin are also recommended. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that can be effective against muscle spasms, while diazepam is a muscle relaxant that may be more useful at night due to side effects at higher doses. Botulinum toxin and dantrolene sodium can be considered if conventional treatments prove ineffective, but are not used as first-line for spasticity. The NICE multiple sclerosis guideline recommends gabapentin as one of the first drugs to try in the treatment of spasms and spasticity.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual onset of pain in his left elbow over a period of four weeks with only mild relief from over-the-counter pain medication. The patient enjoys playing tennis and does yard work regularly. He does recall a fall at home four weeks ago where he landed on his right elbow. The patient denies any fever and feels generally well. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the left elbow with resisted wrist extension/supination and the elbow held in extension. There is no significant swelling over the olecranon. What is the most probable cause of this man's elbow pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is lateral epicondylitis, which is characterized by pain around the lateral epicondyle of the humerus that radiates to the forearm. The pain is exacerbated by repetitive movements with the dominant hand, which is common in the patient’s job as a cleaner. The pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension and supination while the elbow is extended. Medial epicondylitis, olecranon bursitis, radial head fractures, and septic arthritis are less likely differentials as they do not match the examination findings in this scenario.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this morning. She usually takes it at 9am, but it's now 12:30 pm. What guidance should the doctor provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take missed pill as soon as possible and advise condom use until pill taking re-established for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Progestogen Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure (NYHA class II) presents for a check-up. Their diabetes is currently managed through diet, but their HbA1c has increased to 64 mmol/mol (8.0%). Which of the following medications should be avoided due to contraindication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman presents with flank pain and a 48-hour history of dysuria....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with flank pain and a 48-hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovary syndrome. She is not sexually active at present. There is haematuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain.
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: Overview of Common Conditions

      Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice. It can be caused by a wide range of conditions, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, gynecological, and systemic disorders. Here, we provide an overview of some of the most common conditions that can cause abdominal pain and their characteristic features.

      Pyelonephritis: This is a potentially life-threatening infection that affects the renal parenchyma. It typically presents with fever, unilateral costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting. Antibiotic therapy is essential, and empirical therapy should be tailored to the infecting pathogen.

      Ovarian cyst pain: Ovarian cysts are usually asymptomatic, but severe pain can occur if there is torsion or rupture. The pain is sudden, sharp, and unilateral, and can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus.

      Nephrolithiasis: This refers to the presence of calculi in the kidneys and/or ureters. The classic presentation is sudden onset of severe flank pain that radiates anteriorly and inferiorly, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Fever is not a typical feature.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease: PID is an infectious and inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract. It typically presents with lower abdominal pain and abnormal vaginal discharge.

      Acute glomerulonephritis: This is a specific set of renal diseases that can result in damage to the glomerular tissue. Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious form, but it typically presents with haematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts in the urine, often accompanied by hypertension and oedema.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain is broad and includes a range of conditions that can affect different organ systems. A careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate investigations, can help to narrow down the possible causes and guide management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following causes of diarrhea has the briefest incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of diarrhea has the briefest incubation period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 27 - You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old...

    Incorrect

    • You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.2 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.

      Investigation for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.

      Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results of the MRI are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of a foul-smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of a foul-smelling vaginal discharge that has persisted for 5 days after having unprotected sex. She reports feeling generally well and denies any fever or urinary symptoms. The patient also confirms that she is not pregnant. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple punctate lesions on her cervix and a green discharge with a strong odor. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a sexually transmitted disease that results in a yellow/green discharge with a foul odor, vulval itching, and dysuria. During a speculum examination, the cervix may appear as a strawberry cervix due to multiple punctate haemorrhages. Bacterial vaginosis, which is not a sexually transmitted disease and can be caused by various factors, is less likely to be the diagnosis due to the recent unprotected sexual intercourse and the presence of an offensive discharge. Chlamydia and gonorrhoea, both sexually transmitted diseases, can also cause dysuria and vaginal discharge, but the punctate cervical haemorrhages and malodorous green discharge make them less likely diagnoses. Syphilis, which presents in three stages, is unlikely due to the acute onset of symptoms and the absence of genital lesions.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 29 - Ms. Johnson, a 28-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson, a 28-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of hypoxia, tachypnea, and tachycardia (110 bpm). She reports experiencing sudden breathlessness earlier in the day and coughing up small amounts of blood. Ms. Johnson is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and returned to the UK from Australia four days ago. She also mentions having an allergy to contrast medium.

      During the examination, left-sided crackles are heard on auscultation of her chest, and Ms. Johnson is found to be tachypneic. Her chest x-ray shows no focal or acute abnormalities. The medical team is concerned that she may have a pulmonary embolism (PE), but the radiology department informs them that they cannot perform a V/Q scan outside of regular hours and that they will have to wait until the next morning.

      What would be the most appropriate next step for Ms. Johnson's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start the patient on treatment dose apixaban whilst awaiting a V/Q scan the next day

      Explanation:

      This patient is at a high risk of having a PE, scoring 7 points on her Wells’ score and presenting with a typical history of PE, along with several risk factors such as immobilisation and being on the COCP. Ideally, a CT pulmonary angiogram would be performed, but a contrast allergy is an absolute contraindication. Giving fluids or hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine would not reduce the risk of contrast allergy. A CT chest without contrast is not diagnostic for a PE. In such cases, a V/Q scan is the best option, but it may not be available out of hours. Therefore, given the strong suspicion of a PE, the patient should be started on treatment dose anticoagulation while awaiting the scan. NICE recommends using DOACs like apixaban as interim therapeutic anticoagulation. It is important to note that prophylactic heparin is used to prevent a PE, not to treat a PE.

      Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.

      If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.

      Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that she has jaundice and suspects liver disease. She also presents with angular cheilitis. She has a history of taking steroid inhalers for asthma, but no other significant medical history. A blood smear shows signs of megaloblastic anemia, and her serum bilirubin level is elevated, but her other laboratory results are normal. There are no indications of gastrointestinal (GI) issues.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anaemia: Understanding the Causes

      Anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here, we will discuss some of the possible causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings.

      Pernicious Anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to impaired intrinsic factor (IF) production. It is usually seen in adults aged 40-70 years and is characterized by megaloblastic changes in rapidly dividing cells. Anti-parietal cell antibodies are present in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia. The Schilling test is useful in confirming the absence of IF. Treatment involves parenteral administration of cyanocobalamin or hydroxycobalamin.

      Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia: CML is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in increased proliferation of granulocytic cells. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly. Mild to moderate anaemia is usually normochromic and normocytic. Diagnosis is based on histopathological findings in the peripheral blood and Philadelphia chromosome in bone marrow cells.

      Iron Deficiency Anaemia: This type of anaemia is primarily a laboratory diagnosis and is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic erythropoiesis. It is caused by chronic iron deficiency and can be due to multiple causes, including chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate.

      Crohn’s Disease: This chronic inflammatory process can affect any part of the GI tract and can cause anaemia due to chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate. However, the lack of GI symptoms in the clinical scenario provided is not consistent with a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis: This chronic disease is characterized by continuing hepatocellular inflammation and necrosis, with a tendency to progress to cirrhosis. Elevated serum aminotransferase levels are present in 100% of patients at initial presentation. Anaemia, if present, is usually normochromic. However, this clinical picture and laboratory findings are not consistent with the scenario given.

      In conclusion, understanding the different causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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