00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to her son, she stumbled over an exposed tree root and landed on her outstretched arms. Since the fall, she has been holding her right arm and complaining of intense pain.

      An x-ray is ordered, revealing a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement. Additionally, the ulnar tip is also fractured. The fracture is located across the metaphysis of the radius and does not involve the articular cartilage.

      What is the name of this type of fracture?

      Your Answer: Colles fracture

      Explanation:

      The most likely fracture resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is Colles fracture. This type of fracture occurs in the distal radius and typically does not involve the joint. It is the most common type of distal radius fracture. Bennett fracture, Dupuytren fracture, and Galeazzi fracture are all incorrect answers as they describe different types of fractures in other parts of the body.

      Understanding Colles’ Fracture

      Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.

      In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?

      Your Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation for the past three weeks. He also reports feeling increasingly tired and thirsty during this time. The patient has a history of a previous STEMI and stage 1 chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, the GP orders some blood tests, which reveal the following results:

      - Calcium: 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - ALP: 174 u/L (30 - 100)
      - Na+: 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is primary hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the patient’s symptomatic hypercalcaemia, as well as their blood test results showing a raised calcium, reduced phosphate level, and a raised ALP. Multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease of bone, and sarcoidosis are all incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his ankle. He reports that whilst playing basketball that evening he landed awkwardly on his left foot after jumping for a rebound. He felt a pop at the time of impact and his ankle immediately became swollen.

      On examination:

      Heart rate: 80/minute; Respiratory rate: 16/minute; Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg; Oxygen saturations: 99%; Temperature: 36.8 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.

      Left ankle: swollen, erythematosus and disaffirmed. Skin intact. Extremely tender upon palpation of the lateral malleolus. Difficulty weight-bearing and dorsiflexing the ankle. Sensation intact. Pulses present.

      Examination of the right ankle and lower limb is unremarkable.

      X-rays of the left ankle and foot are carried out which demonstrate a fractured lateral malleolus and associated dislocation of the ankle joint.

      What term is used to describe this pattern of injury?

      Your Answer: Monteggia fracture

      Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture

      Explanation:

      The patient has a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint and a fracture of the radius. It is important to differentiate this from a Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal ulna and a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint. To remember the difference, one can associate the name of the fracture with the bone that is broken: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles’ fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Boxer’s fracture, which involves a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal with volar displacement of the metacarpal head.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of back pain. He describes experiencing poorly localised lower back pain for the past 2 weeks, which began after doing some yard work. The patient works as a carpenter and reports that the pain has not improved with the use of a heating pad or over-the-counter pain medication. He denies any fever or neurological symptoms. During the examination, paraspinal tenderness is noted, and the straight-leg test is negative. The patient reports intentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 3 months, and his body mass index is 30 kg/m².

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a NSAID

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing musculoskeletal lower back pain, which may have been worsened by physical labor. There is no indication of infection or cancer, and an MRI is not necessary at this point as it would not alter the treatment plan. It is recommended that patients with back pain remain physically active instead of being on strict bed rest. NSAIDs are the preferred initial treatment for back pain and are more effective than using only paracetamol. Opioids should not be the first choice for treatment.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What...

    Incorrect

    • A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What is the preferred treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Manipulation and progressive casting starting soon after birth

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.

      In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.

      Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite making dietary changes and limiting alcohol consumption, he has experienced four flares in the past year. The patient has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and is attempting to lower it through lifestyle modifications. He has a controlled hiatus hernia with omeprazole and no other underlying health issues or medications. His most recent gout attack occurred six weeks ago, and recent blood tests revealed a urate level of 498 micromol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start allopurinol + colchicine

      Explanation:

      According to current NICE guidelines, patients with gout who experience two or more attacks per year should receive urate-lowering therapy (ULT). When starting ULT, it is recommended to also prescribe colchicine cover for up to six months. If colchicine is not suitable, NSAID cover may be considered as an alternative. While high-dose prednisolone can effectively treat acute gout, low-dose prednisolone is not appropriate for gout prevention due to the negative effects of long-term corticosteroid use. Given the patient’s history of hiatus hernia, using an NSAID like naproxen or ibuprofen to treat gout may not be the best option. Unlike xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol or febuxostat, NSAIDs are not considered ULT and are therefore not recommended for gout prevention.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As an orthopaedic ward doctor, you are examining a 24-year-old man who was...

    Incorrect

    • As an orthopaedic ward doctor, you are examining a 24-year-old man who was brought in by ambulance after falling from a tree branch. He reports dislocating his left hip after landing on it while flexed and abducted. The dislocation was reduced under general anaesthetic. During the current assessment, the patient reports experiencing pain primarily in the posterior area of his left thigh, which radiates down to the posterior and lateral regions of his leg. Upon gait assessment, a left foot drop was observed. Which nerve is most likely affected due to this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are indicative of a hip dislocation, which is consistent with their reported injury. It is common for the sciatic nerve to be damaged or stretched during a posterior hip dislocation, as it runs behind the femur. The pain experienced by the patient follows the path of the sciatic nerve, and the foot drop is a result of damage to the common peroneal nerve, which is supplied by the sciatic nerve. While femoral nerve injury is also possible with a posterior hip dislocation, it would result in different symptoms such as loss of sensation in the front and inside of the thigh and weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. The obturator nerve and pudendal nerve are unlikely to be affected in this case, as they would cause different symptoms such as weakness in thigh abduction or sensory impairment to the external genitalia and bladder/bowel dysfunction, respectively.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, without leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting her left ankle while hiking in a mountainous national park. She has no significant medical history. X-rays were taken and the radiologist's report states that there is a minimally displaced, transverse fracture distally through the lateral malleolus, below the level of the talar dome, without talar shift. The medial malleolus is unaffected. What is the most suitable immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allow weight bearing as tolerated in a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot

      Explanation:

      According to the radiologist’s report, the patient has a stable Weber A fracture of the lateral malleolus (distal fibula) that is minimally displaced and located below the tibiofibular syndesmosis. As a result, immobilization in a back slab is unnecessary, and reduction is not required. RICE treatment is not recommended as it does not provide adequate immobilization, which can be an effective form of pain relief. Instead, a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot is the appropriate management option as it allows weight-bearing while providing immobilization. Urgent surgical intervention is not necessary in this case due to the fracture’s stability and minimal displacement.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a car accident. She has been given morphine and paracetamol for pain relief and is currently comfortable. During examination, her right leg is internally rotated and appears shorter than the left. There is significant bruising over the right buttock and thigh. Neurovascular examination reveals altered sensation over the right posterior leg and foot, and there is weakness in dorsiflexion of the foot. What type of injury is likely to have occurred in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior hip dislocation causing sciatic nerve injury

      Explanation:

      A common complication of posterior hip dislocation is sciatic nerve injury, which is evident in this patient presenting with an internally rotated and shortened limb. The reduced sensation in the posterior leg and foot, along with impaired dorsiflexion of the foot, is consistent with this type of nerve injury. The sciatic nerve can be stretched by the dislocated hip, which occurs as it emerges through the greater sciatic foramen inferior to the piriformis and travels to the posterior surface of the ischium.

      It is important to note that an anterior hip dislocation would present differently, with an externally rotated and shortened limb, and is associated with femoral nerve injury rather than sciatic nerve injury. Similarly, a tibial nerve injury would not present with an internally rotated limb, and a fractured neck of femur would not cause this type of limb presentation or tibial nerve injury. It is more likely that a posterior hip dislocation would cause a generalised sciatic nerve injury rather than affecting only the tibial nerve, as the sciatic nerve branches further down the leg than at the hip.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, without leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old man has been referred to the rheumatology clinic by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man has been referred to the rheumatology clinic by his GP due to suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient complains of symmetrical arthralgia affecting the MCP and PIP joints for the past 3 months, along with mouth ulcers and photosensitivity. Which of the following medical histories would support a diagnosis of SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      The revised ARA criteria for the classification of lupus includes serositis (pleuritis or pericarditis) as a defining feature. Pericarditis is the most prevalent cardiac manifestation of SLE and is also included in the classification criteria of the British Society for Rheumatology 2018 guidelines for SLE. It is important to note that the other options are not part of these criteria, which are not comprehensive but are still considered a valuable diagnostic aid.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old woman comes to eye casualty with painless partial vision loss on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to eye casualty with painless partial vision loss on the left side. Over the past two weeks, she has experienced a temporal headache on the left side with tenderness in the left scalp. Additionally, she has noticed pain in her left jaw when chewing. The patient reports low-grade fever and fatigue. She has no prior medical or ophthalmological history.

      What would be the expected findings on fundoscopy, given the probable cause of the vision loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins

      Explanation:

      The correct fundoscopic appearance for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is a swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins. This condition is often seen in patients with temporal arthritis and can cause sudden unilateral vision loss. The patient in this case has classic symptoms of temporal arthritis, including new temporal headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and constitutional symptoms. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is caused by inflammation in the posterior ciliary artery, which leads to occlusion and subsequent ischemia to the head of the optic nerve.

      A pale retina with a ‘cherry red’ spot is not the typical fundoscopic appearance for temporal arthritis. This is the typical finding in central retinal artery occlusion, which is not typically inflammatory and is more similar to a stroke. Cupping of the optic disc is also not seen in anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, as this is a typical finding in neuropathy due to glaucoma. Hazy fundus with an absent red reflex is also not related to temporal arthritis, as this is the typical finding in vitreous hemorrhage, which is often caused by bleeding from neovascularization in proliferative diabetic retinopathy, trauma, or retinal detachment.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old woman comes to her GP with a few months of gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to her GP with a few months of gradual symmetrical swelling and stiffness in her fingers. She experiences more discomfort in cold weather. Additionally, she reports having more frequent episodes of 'heartburn' lately. During the examination, the doctor observes three spider naevi on her face, and her fingers appear red, slightly swollen, and shiny. The examination of her heart and lungs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Limited systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is limited systemic sclerosis, also known as CREST syndrome. This subtype includes Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia, although calcinosis may not always be present. There is no evidence of systemic fibrosis, which rules out diffuse systemic sclerosis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the systemic features are more indicative of systemic sclerosis. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is unlikely given the suggestive symptoms of sclerotic disease.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Emma is a 26-year-old patient who has been experiencing back pain for the...

    Incorrect

    • Emma is a 26-year-old patient who has been experiencing back pain for the past year. She describes the pain as a dull ache that is mostly located in her lower back and sometimes wakes her up in the early hours of the morning. Emma notes that she generally feels better when she is active throughout the day and is often worse when resting.

      What investigation would be most helpful in confirming Emma's diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic X-ray

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that a negative HLA-B27 result should not be used to completely rule out a diagnosis of spondyloarthritis, as there are still cases of ankylosing spondylitis that do not show this genetic marker.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old male presents to the clinic with ongoing lower back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the clinic with ongoing lower back pain. He reports that his pain seems to improve with physical activity, despite his demanding job in construction. Additionally, he has been experiencing discomfort in both hands and knees. During the examination, you observe restricted movement in his lumbar spine and decide to order X-rays of his spine, hands, and knees. What are the most probable findings you expect to see?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subchondral sclerosis of the sacroiliac joint

      Explanation:

      The x-ray findings suggest that the patient is suffering from ankylosing spondylitis, a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that causes fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints. The x-ray of the sacroiliac joints shows subchondral sclerosis and erosions, while the x-ray of the spine may reveal a ‘bamboo spine’ appearance and squaring of lumbar vertebrae. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘subchondral sclerosis of the sacroiliac joint’. It is important to note that chondrocalcinosis at the patellofemoral joint is a classic finding in pseudogout, while pencil-in-cup deformity is a classic finding in psoriatic arthropathy and rheumatoid arthritis. Additionally, ‘squaring’ rather than ’rounding’ of the lumbar vertebrae is seen in ankylosing spondylitis on lumbar x-rays, and subchondral sclerosis is a common feature at the patellofemoral joint in osteoarthritis.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man has just been released from the hospital after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has just been released from the hospital after suffering a hip fracture. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis during his hospitalization and has been prescribed alendronic acid. What potential risk is he facing while taking this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atypical stress fractures

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are linked to a higher chance of experiencing atypical stress fractures. This is a well-known negative effect of taking bisphosphonates and is most frequently observed in the proximal femoral shaft. Arthritis is an incorrect option as arthralgia, fever, and myalgia are common side effects of bisphosphonate use. Hypercalcaemia is also incorrect as hypocalcaemia is a commonly associated risk due to increased calcium efflux from the bones, resulting in low calcium levels. Osteonecrosis of the humeral head is also an incorrect option as bisphosphonates increase the risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw, which is caused by decreased bone remodelling and ulceration of oral mucosa leading to underlying necrotic bone.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has persisted for two weeks. The pain is situated between the shoulder blades and happens frequently throughout the day. He expresses concern that this might be a severe issue and has been avoiding physical activity as a result.
      What aspects of this patient's medical history are cause for concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Location of pain

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with back pain in the thoracic area, it is considered a red flag and requires further investigation to rule out potential serious underlying causes such as skeletal disorders, degenerative disc disease, vertebral fractures, vascular malformations, or metastasis. Additionally, if the patient exhibits fear-avoidance behavior and reduced activity, it may indicate psychosocial factors that could lead to chronic back pain. Patients under 20 or over 50 years old, those with a history of trauma, and those whose pain is worse at night are also considered red flags.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old cancer survivor visits the GP complaining of back pain that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old cancer survivor visits the GP complaining of back pain that began after playing golf last week. The pain intensifies when lying flat on the back at night, and taking paracetamol has provided little relief. The patient denies experiencing any bowel or bladder issues. During the examination, the doctor notes that the back pain is most prominent in the thoracic area, but there are no signs of neurological impairment. What is the most appropriate course of action for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to hospital for further investigation

      Explanation:

      When a patient with a history of cancer complains of back pain, it is important to investigate further. Even if the pain seems to be caused by a simple musculoskeletal injury, there may be underlying issues related to the patient’s cancer history. In this case, the patient has three red flags that require urgent attention in a hospital setting: a history of cancer, thoracic back pain, and worsening pain when lying down (which could indicate pressure on a growth or tumor). The concern is that the back pain may be caused by spinal metastases, which can lead to cord compromise.

      Performing a digital rectal exam (DRE) is not necessary in this case, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms of cauda equina syndrome or cord compromise. DRE is typically used to assess for reduced anal tone and saddle anesthesia, which are signs of cauda equina syndrome. This condition can cause sciatic-like lower back and leg pain.

      While prescribing stronger pain medication may help alleviate the patient’s symptoms, the priority in managing this case is to rule out any serious underlying causes of the back pain. Physiotherapy may be helpful in managing musculoskeletal back pain, but it is important to first rule out the possibility of spinal metastases due to cancer recurrence.

      An X-ray of the spine may not be sensitive enough to detect small lytic lesions or assess for canal compromise. It is typically only considered if there has been recent significant trauma or suspicion of osteoporotic vertebral collapse. In cases where metastases are suspected, an MRI or CT scan is preferred.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman who has been on long-term prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman who has been on long-term prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica complains of increasing pain in her right hip joint. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions, but there is no indication of limb shortening or external rotation. An X-ray of the hip reveals microfractures and osteopenia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      The development of avascular necrosis of the femoral head is strongly associated with long-term steroid use, as seen in this patient who is taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 34-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a sexual health...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a sexual health screening. He complains of a painful and red sore that appeared on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. He reports that his wife, his only regular sexual partner, has not experienced any symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions feeling tired and run down after a stressful situation at work, which led to the development of painful mouth ulcers on his gums and lip. He has no significant medical history except for a few instances of painful and gunky eyes that he treated at home. On examination, the physician observes two small, healing ulcers in the patient's mouth and an oval sore with an erythematosus border. The patient also has a 0.5 cm lesion on his penile shaft that appears erythematosus but has no discharge. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behcet's disease

      Explanation:

      Behcet’s disease is an autoimmune condition that affects small blood vessels, causing inflammation. It is classified as a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which occurs when immune complexes deposit in small vessels. The most common symptoms of Behcet’s disease are recurrent oral and genital ulcers, anterior uveitis, and skin lesions. This condition is more prevalent in people of East Mediterranean descent and can be triggered by infections such as parvovirus or herpes simplex virus.

      In contrast, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted infection that typically causes symptoms such as dysuria, frequency, and changes in discharge. It does not typically present with ulcers. Syphilis, on the other hand, is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Treponema pallidum. Primary syphilis is characterized by a solitary, small, painless genital chancre that heals within a few weeks. It is not associated with eye symptoms. Guttate psoriasis, another condition, presents with numerous small, scaly papules that are pink or red and occur all over the body.

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.

      The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of painful and stiff...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of painful and stiff joints. The stiffness is more pronounced in the mornings and lasts for over an hour, but improves as the day progresses. The patient reports feeling fatigued but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, synovitis is observed in two interphalangeal joints of the left hand, left wrist, and a single distal interphalangeal joint in the right foot. The patient is referred to a rheumatologist who diagnoses psoriatic arthritis. What is the most distinguishing feature between psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asymmetrical joint pains

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis patients may experience a symmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis. Fatigue is a common symptom in inflammatory arthritides, including psoriatic arthritis, but it is not specific to this condition. Joint pain caused by mechanical factors like osteoarthritis and fibromyalgia can also lead to fatigue. Prolonged morning stiffness is a sign of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic arthritis or rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also occur in other inflammatory arthritides. In contrast, morning stiffness in osteoarthritis is usually shorter in duration, lasting less than an hour. Improvement in stiffness with use is a distinguishing feature of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic and rheumatoid arthritis, while physical activity in osteoarthritis tends to worsen symptoms.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness in her shoulder and pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness in her shoulder and pelvic girdle. She reports feeling weak and struggling with her daily activities. The pain and stiffness are most severe in the morning and gradually improve throughout the day, lasting up to 5 hours after waking.

      During the examination, there is no apparent weakness in any of her limbs, but there is stiffness and pain in her proximal muscles. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and depression and is currently taking atorvastatin and sertraline. What investigation findings are expected, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ESR ↑, CRP ↑, anti-CCP normal, CK normal

      Explanation:

      The correct statement is that creatine kinase levels are normal in polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by morning stiffness and pain in the proximal muscles, which is caused by inflammation in the joint linings. As a result, ESR and CRP levels are elevated, but there are no autoantibodies associated with PMR, hence anti-CCP levels are normal. Since there is no muscle damage or weakness, CK levels remain normal. These are typical findings for a patient with PMR.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 49-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of joint pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of joint pain in her left hand and a 'sausage-like finger'. She reports her only medication is prescription coal tar shampoo.

      She is tender over the left distal interphalangeal joints with mildly swollen fingers. Her left index finger is diffusely swollen.

      Observations show a heart rate of 82 bpm, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, a temperature of 36.8ºC, and 98% oxygen saturation on room air.

      She has an x-ray of her hand performed.

      What would be the most likely findings on imaging?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Periarticular erosions with bone resorption

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of swelling and pain in the distal interphalangeal joints and dactylitis suggest a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. This is further supported by her use of a prescription coal tar shampoo for psoriatic lesions on her scalp. Psoriatic joint disease can cause a distinct X-ray appearance known as a pencil-in-cup deformity, characterized by periarticular erosions and bone resorption.

      In contrast, erosions with overhanging edges, also known as rat-bite erosions, are associated with gout and tophi, typically affecting the first metatarsal joint in the foot. Joint effusion may be present in the early stages of septic arthritis, which should be ruled out for any hot, painful swollen joint. However, the patient’s lack of systemic illness and unchanged swelling over time make septic arthritis less likely.

      Osteoarthritis, a non-inflammatory degenerative arthritis that worsens with age, does not typically present with dactylitis and is characterized by X-ray features such as loss of joint space, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger that has been bothering her for the past 3 weeks. She has also discovered a soft lump at the base of her left calf and requests that it be examined. She denies any fever, weight loss, or trauma, and has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus.

      During the examination, the GP observes erythema and swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joint of the left index finger. The patient can move the joint independently, but pain limits her range of motion. Arthrocentesis reveals yellow fluid without crystal formation or gram stain, but a high level of leukocytes (40,000/μL) and a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the cytology.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      A joint aspiration is recommended for this patient who presents with new-onset monoarticular arthritis and no confirmed diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. In cases of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial fluid will typically appear yellow and have increased opacity due to the quantity of leukocytes present. The leukocyte count can range from 2,000 to 50,000 per microlitre, with a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). There will be no crystals present. Despite the patient’s atypical history of rheumatoid arthritis, the arthrocentesis findings, along with their past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the presence of constitutional symptoms and an Achilles tendon nodule, support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and pseudogout can be ruled out based on the absence of their characteristic arthrocentesis findings.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.

      Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of widespread bone pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of widespread bone pain and increased difficulty in performing daily activities, such as climbing stairs, due to muscle weakness. The patient reports that her symptoms worsen at night or after exertion. She also mentions experiencing sleep difficulties and fatigue. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the spine and muscle weakness in the arms and legs. The patient has been avoiding leaving her house due to the pandemic. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of osteosarcoma is highly unlikely as the majority of cases occur between 13 and 16 years of age, and the patient’s symptoms and systemic features suggest osteomalacia instead. Polymyalgia rheumatica typically presents with pain and stiffness in the shoulder and hip girdle lasting for more than 1 hour in the morning, which is not consistent with the patient’s clinical picture. While Paget’s disease can cause bone pain, it is usually asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray, and it would not cause proximal myopathy, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of bilateral hip pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of bilateral hip pain that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. The pain is now preventing her from taking her usual evening walks and worsens throughout the day, especially during exercise. She is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks half a bottle of red wine every night. Her medical history includes recurrent gout and Sjogren syndrome. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by pain that worsens with exercise and throughout the day, particularly in the hip joints. This is in contrast to inflammatory arthritis, which typically presents with pain that is worse in the mornings and accompanied by stiffness. While Sjogren syndrome may suggest rheumatoid arthritis, the patient’s symptoms strongly suggest osteoarthritis, which is a common condition. Gout is unlikely to affect the hip joints bilaterally and insidiously.

      Causes of Hip Pain in Adults

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by her father after a fall. An X-ray of her left ankle shows a Weber A fracture. What is the most suitable course of action for treating this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remain weight bearing as tolerated in a CAM boot for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Patients with minimally displaced and stable Weber A fractures may bear weight as tolerated while wearing a CAM boot. These fractures occur below the ankle syndesmosis and are considered stable, requiring immobilization in a CAM boot for six weeks. Pain relief is necessary but not the primary management for this injury. A below-knee cast is not required as the fracture is stable. Open reduction and external fixation are only necessary for unstable injuries such as Weber C fractures.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old female patient is referred to the orthopaedics department with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient is referred to the orthopaedics department with a history of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma three years ago. Despite regular follow-up scans showing no signs of disease recurrence, she has been experiencing worsening pain in her right hip for the past two months, particularly during exercise. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions when her hip is moved passively, with internal rotation being particularly painful. An x-ray ordered by her GP has come back as normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis is strongly associated with prior chemotherapy treatment. Although initial x-rays may appear normal in patients with this condition, it is unlikely that they would not reveal any metastatic deposits that could cause pain.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing solids. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing solids. She has observed a gradual decrease in her mouth opening and tightening of the skin over her distal forearms over the past year. During the examination, her fingers seem to be blanched and cold, and her skin has a 'salt and pepper' appearance. You suspect that she has a connective tissue disorder. What test will aid in establishing a conclusive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting bone pains and fatigue that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting bone pains and fatigue that have persisted for the past year. He has also experienced a gradual decline in his hearing. Upon examination, the doctor notes bossing of the skull. An X-ray of the skull reveals significant thickening of the vault with a combination of lytic and sclerotic lesions. What laboratory finding is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/4) 50%
Passmed