00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say that after the fall he cried immediately and then vomited four times. They brought him to the emergency department one hour after the event. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 15 and he has a 6 cm haematoma on the right side of his head. Neurological examination is normal and he has full memory of what happened. What would you do next?

      Your Answer: CT head within one hour

      Correct Answer: Observe for 4 hours from the time of injury

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that when a child’s single risk factor is 2 vomits, the child should be observed for 4 hours from the time of the injury, instead of having a CT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5 mg per rectum (PR) diazepam to terminate the seizure and is still only responding to voice 6 hours later. He was diagnosed with measles five days prior to this episode.Which of the following is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is encephalitis secondary to measles infection.Encephalitis:Encephalitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It usually presents within 1-14 days of the rash, usually day 5. It may present with fever, headache, vomiting, stiff neck, meningeal irritation, drowsiness, seizures, reduced consciousness; 15% will have neurological sequelae; 10% mortality.Other options:- Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It is thought to be a postinfectious immune response. Clinical manifestations include fever, headache, neck stiffness, seizures and mental status changes. It could fit this presentation although it tends to present in the recovery phase of measles infection, typically two weeks after the exanthem. In contrast, encephalitis tends to occur within a few days of the rash.- The history is not that of a typical febrile seizure as it lasted >15 minutes. He has also not recovered consciousness at 4 hours. The diazepam should have been eliminated within 4 hours and so should no longer be contributing to his reduced level of consciousness. Also, the history states the recent diagnosis of measles, and so complications of measles should be considered.- Intracranial bleed secondary to thrombocytopenia: Measles is not known to cause thrombocytopenia.- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (also known as Dawson’s encephalitis): This is an extremely rare complication of measles. It is a progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system that occurs 7-10 years after a measles infection. The treatment for SSPE is mainly intraventricular interferon therapy through an Ommaya reservoir. The prognosis is poor, and it is usually fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy sustained a fracture of his right elbow, which damaged the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustained a fracture of his right elbow, which damaged the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. A month later, he still has a total ulnar nerve paralysis. Which of the following can be observed on examination?

      Your Answer: Sensory loss over the ulnar 3˝ digits on the ulnar side of the hand

      Correct Answer: Inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, the inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table is the feature of ulnar nerve injury. Rationale:The ulnar nerve (usually) supplies sensation to the skin of the fifth and the ulnar side of the fourth finger, front and back. Following the injury of the nerve, the following functions are impaired:- There is a sympathetic interruption, with the absence of sweating in the affected area. – The thenar muscles are supplied by the median nerve and are therefore spared. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the muscles of the hypothenar eminence. – Although the ring and little fingers are held in the clawed position when the nerve is injured at the wrist, a high lesion paralyses the long flexors to these two fingers and results in the loss of this sign. The test for paralysis of the palmar interossei, supplied by the ulnar nerve, is the inability to adduct the fingers and thus to be unable to grip a sheet of paper between them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following...

    Incorrect

    • Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila's condition?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic generalised epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder

      Explanation:

      Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party....

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?

      Your Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome

      Explanation:

      Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1:- Most common type of congenital LQTS- Defect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p – defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypes:Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome: Associated with congenital deafness,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is worried that her daughter might be using illicit substances. The patient is sweating and appears agitated, talkative and is repeatedly clenching her jaw. She has generalized piloerection. She has most likely taken which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)

      Explanation:

      3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception (awareness of surrounding objects and conditions). It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens, producing feelings of increased energy, pleasure, emotional warmth, and distorted sensory and time perception. MDMA’s effects last about 3 to 6 hours, although many users take a second dose as the effects of the first dose begin to fade. Over the course of the week following moderate use of the drug, a person may experience:irritabilityimpulsiveness and aggressiondepressionsleep problemsanxietymemory and attention problemsdecreased appetitedecreased interest in and pleasure from sex

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the first sign of puberty in girls? ...

    Correct

    • What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

      Your Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and bloody diarrhoea. Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Inflammatory bowel diseaseThe inflammatory bowel diseases (IBDs), including ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease, are chronic inflammatory disorders of the gastrointestinal tract most often diagnosed in adolescence and young adulthood, with a rising incidence in paediatric populations. Inflammatory bowel disease is caused by a dysregulated mucosal immune response to the intestinal microflora in genetically predisposed hosts. Although children can present with the classic symptoms of weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhoea, many present with nonclassical symptoms of isolated poor growth, anaemia, or other extraintestinal manifestations.Colorectal Carcinoma (CRC) is rare in patients less than 20 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?

      Your Answer: Right sided thoracotomy, ligation of trachea-oesophageal fistula and repair of oesophageal atresia

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF); however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases; the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A screening test is found to have a sensitivity of 90% and a...

    Incorrect

    • A screening test is found to have a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.Which of the following is the best answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An individual without disease is more likely to be correctly diagnosed via the test than someone with the disease

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been holding onto her both ears and crying out of pain. This has been going on for about a week and there has been no improvement in the pain despite using paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, the child is febrile, and her pulse is 130 beats per minute. the tympanic membranes are red and bulging on both sides. What is the most appropriate course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of acute otitis media should begin with adequate analgesia. Antibiotic therapy can be deferred in children two years or older with mild symptoms. Antibiotics should be prescribed immediately if:- Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving- Systemically unwell but not requiring admission- Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease- Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media- Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canaHigh-dose amoxicillin (80 to 90 mg per kg per day) is the antibiotic of choice for treating acute otitis media in patients who are not allergic to penicillin, otherwise erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with corneal opacities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with corneal opacities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      The mnemonic STUMPED is helpful for remembering the differential diagnosis for congenital corneal opacities: – Sclerocornea- Tears in Descemet membrane (usually due to forceps trauma or congenital glaucoma)- Ulcers (e.g. infection – rubella)- Metabolic (e.g., mucopolysaccharidosis)- Peters anomaly- oEdema – Dermoids (e.g. Goldenhar’s syndrome)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents

      Explanation:

      6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Explanation:

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with erythema of the palms and soles and maculopapular rash. His eyes and tongue were red. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki Disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium-sized arteries. Diagnostic criteria include fever of at least 5 days duration along with 4 or 5 of the principal clinical features – extremity changes, polymorphous rash, oropharyngeal changes, conjunctival injection and unilateral nonpurulent cervical lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q inherited from the father?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi

      Explanation:

      Most cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are not inherited, particularly those caused by a deletion in the paternal chromosome 15 or by maternal uniparental disomy. These genetic changes occur as random events during the formation of reproductive cells (eggs and sperm) or in early embryonic development. Affected people typically have no history of the disorder in their family.Rarely, a genetic change responsible for Prader-Willi syndrome can be inherited. For example, it is possible for a genetic change that abnormally inactivates genes on the paternal chromosome 15 to be passed from one generation to the next.Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic condition that affects many parts of the body. In infancy, this condition is characterized by weak muscle tone (hypotonia), feeding difficulties, poor growth, and delayed development. Beginning in childhood, affected individuals develop an insatiable appetite, which leads to chronic overeating (hyperphagia) and obesity. Some people with Prader-Willi syndrome, particularly those with obesity, also develop type 2 diabetes (the most common form of diabetes).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash around her left wrist. Her mother recalls that the rash started to appear after the child started wearing a new bracelet for the past one week. What is this type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 4

      Explanation:

      According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, the scenario provided is a type 4 (delayed) reaction.These reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and cause contact dermatitis. Nickel, commonly found in cheap jewellery, is a common cause of contact dermatitis.Note:There are two main types of contact dermatitis:- Irritant contact dermatitis: It is a common, non-allergic reaction due to weak acids or alkalis (e.g. detergents). These are often seen on the hands. They present typically with erythema, and rarely, crusting and vesicles.- Allergic contact dermatitis: These are type IV hypersensitivity reactions and are often seen on the head following hair dyes.They typically present as acute weeping eczema which predominately affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Treatment is usually with a potent topical steroid.Other options:- Allergic rhinitis is an example of a type 1 (immediate) reaction. It is an IgE mediated. It is a hypersensitivity to a previously innocuous substance.- Type 2 reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM, which binds to a cell, causing cell death. Goodpasture syndrome is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.- Immune complexes mediate type 3 reactions. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An infant was born yesterday with ambiguous genitalia. Mineralocorticoid deficiency and androgen excess...

    Incorrect

    • An infant was born yesterday with ambiguous genitalia. Mineralocorticoid deficiency and androgen excess are associated with the suspected diagnosis. What is the pathophysiology of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a common cause of virilisation in females that can present as ambiguous genitalia at birth. Deficiency of the 21-alphahydroxylase enzyme is implicated in excess mineralocorticoid and androgens produced by the adrenal gland. Virilisation occurs when excess androgens are converted to testosterone in a genetically female foetus, causing the genitalia to resemble male genitalia. A deficiency of 5-alpha hydroxylase would rather decrease the production of testosterone and lead to the presentation of external female genitalia in a genetically male foetus. Autoantibodies against glutamic acid are seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus, while defects in the AIRE gene and the FOXP3 affect components of the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures....

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains significant damage to his frontal lobe.Which of the following would you expect him to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomically, the frontal lobe is the largest lobe of the brain lying in front of the central sulcus. It is divided into 3 major areas defined by their anatomy and function. They are the primary motor cortex, the supplemental and premotor cortex, and the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the primary motor, supplemental motor, and premotor areas lead to weakness and impaired execution of motor tasks of the contralateral side. The inferolateral areas of the dominant hemisphere are the expressive language area (Broca area, Brodmann areas 44 and 45), to which damage will result in a non-fluent expressive type of aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Mature human milk contains how many calories? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mature human milk contains how many calories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire whether to have an interval appendicectomy to prevent the chances of having appendicitis again. What percentage of patients with conservatively managed appendix mass are likely to develop recurrent appendicitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0-20%

      Explanation:

      The chance of having appendicitis again after appendix mass is around 17% in children. While the traditional teachings by Hamilton Bailey recommend following the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen followed by an interval appendicectomy six weeks after the discharge of the patient, there remains a looming controversy whether to perform an interval appendicectomy or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/2) 50%
Passmed