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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.

      What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?

      Your Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.

      One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.

      While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.

      Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.

      In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.7
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  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a low impact fracture of his right femur. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals a growth located at the metaphysis that elevates the periosteum and appears to extend into the surrounding soft tissues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Bone Tumours

      Osteosarcomas are the most frequent primary bone malignancy, often occurring in the metaphysis around the knee. They are more common in boys and affect those aged between 14 and 20 years old. Symptoms include pain, low impact fracture, or a mass. On an x-ray, they appear as an area of new bone beneath the periosteum, lifting it up, known as Codman’s triangle. Another feature is sunray spiculation, where opaque lines of osteosarcoma grow into adjacent soft tissues.

      Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that usually develops from benign chondromas, often in hereditary multiple exostoses. Ewing sarcoma is a tumour of unknown origin that develops in limb girdles or the diaphysis of long bones. It has a characteristic onion appearance on x-ray, with concentric rings of new bone formation. Bone metastases are rare in children, and there are no features to suggest a primary tumour, although it should be considered.

      Osteoid osteoma is a benign cystic tumour that occurs in the long bones of young men and teenagers. It causes severe pain and shows as local cortical sclerosis but does not invade into soft tissues. the different types of bone tumours and their characteristics is crucial for early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.8
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  • Question 3 - What is the initial event that triggers puberty in girls? ...

    Correct

    • What is the initial event that triggers puberty in girls?

      Your Answer: Nocturnal rise in luteinising hormone (LH)

      Explanation:

      Puberty is triggered by endocrine changes that begin years before visible changes occur. The initial event is an increase in nocturnal LH secretion under the stimulation of GnRH. LH patterns of secretion change over time, resembling the adult pattern. In females, increased secretion of GnRH, LH, FSH, and estrogen causes the development of secondary sexual characteristics, adrenarche, gonadarche, thelarche, and menarche. The growth spurt for girls occurs in mid-puberty around the age of 12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.8
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  • Question 4 - An 8-year-old girl comes to the doctor complaining of leg pains. She cries...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl comes to the doctor complaining of leg pains. She cries at night and her mother has to massage the painful areas to soothe her. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pains

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Limb Pains in Children

      Idiopathic limb pains, also known as growing pains, are a common occurrence in children between the ages of 3 and 9. These pains typically occur in the lower limbs and can be quickly settled with comforting. It is important to note that these pains are not associated with any abnormalities found during examination and the child should be growing normally.

      However, it is important to distinguish idiopathic limb pains from other conditions that may cause similar symptoms. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, for example, may cause limb pain due to bone marrow infiltration. Children with this condition may also exhibit signs of bone marrow failure and be systemically unwell.

      Langerhans histiocytosis is another condition that can cause painful bone lesions. This proliferative disorder of antigen presenting cells may be localised or systemic and can be difficult to diagnose. The systemic form of the condition may also present with a widespread eczematous rash and fevers.

      Non-accidental injury may also present with recurrent pains, but evidence of an injury would be expected. Primary bone malignancy is more common in teenage years and typically presents with unremitting pain, growth failure, weight loss, or pathological fractures.

      In summary, while idiopathic limb pains are relatively easy to settle and associated with a normal examination, it is important to consider other potential conditions that may cause similar symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7.7
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  • Question 5 - A 9-year-old boy presents to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy presents to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a history of duodenal atresia, clinodactyly, a wide nasal bridge, and a large tongue. What malignancy is he at an elevated risk for?

      Your Answer: Acute leukaemias

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome and Associated Conditions

      Down’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is characterized by several physical features such as a wide, flat nasal bridge, macroglossia, and clinodactyly. Other common features include a round face, hypothyroidism, a sandal gap between the toes, and a single palmar crease. Individuals with Down’s syndrome are predisposed to certain conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease and acute leukaemias. However, nephroblastomas, primary bone malignancies, soft tissue tumours, and solid CNS tumours are not directly related to Down’s syndrome. Nephroblastomas are associated with an absent iris, while primary bone malignancies have few predisposing factors except for rare cancer syndromes. Soft tissue tumours, such as rhabdomyosarcomas, are linked to familial retinoblastoma, while solid CNS tumours are increased in cancer syndromes like Li-Fraumeni. the associated conditions of Down’s syndrome can aid in early detection and treatment of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic. She is in her 12th week...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic. She is in her 12th week of pregnancy and is worried about her baby's health. Her friend had a premature baby who had to stay in the neonatal intensive care unit for several weeks. The patient wants to know what she can do to decrease the chances of having a premature baby.

      Some advice you can give her to reduce the risk of having a premature baby includes:
      - Avoiding smoking, alcohol, and drugs during pregnancy
      - Eating a healthy and balanced diet
      - Getting regular prenatal care
      - Managing chronic conditions such as diabetes or high blood pressure
      - Avoiding infections by washing hands frequently and avoiding sick people
      - Reducing stress through relaxation techniques or counseling
      - Avoiding certain activities such as hot tubs or saunas
      - Getting enough rest and sleep.

      It is important to reassure the patient that not all premature births can be prevented, but taking these steps can help reduce the risk.

      Your Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Low Birth Weight and Intrauterine Growth Retardation

      Low birth weight (LBW) is defined as a birth weight of less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age. Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), also known as small-for-gestational-age (SGA) or small-for-dates, has no universally accepted definition. However, it is commonly defined as a birth weight less than the 10th or 5th percentile for gestational age, a birth weight less than 2500 g with a gestational age of 37 weeks or more, or a birth weight less than two standard deviations below the mean value for gestational age.

      Smoking is a significant modifiable risk factor for IUGR. Babies born to women who smoke weigh an average of 200 g less than those born to non-smokers. The incidence of low birth weight is twice as high among smokers as non-smokers. However, evidence shows that women who quit smoking during pregnancy can reduce the risk of having a low birth weight infant by around 20%.

      There are various support systems available to help smoking cessation during pregnancy, including routine antenatal care, community smoking cessation clinics, psychological therapies, and nicotine replacement therapies. Folate supplementation is recommended for reducing neural tube defects in pregnancy, but it has no proven role in preventing LBW. Iron supplementation is recommended for pregnant women who are anaemic but has no role in preventing LBW in non-anaemic women. Gentle exercise is recommended throughout pregnancy but has no proven role in reducing LBW births. A high protein diet is not thought to be beneficial in pregnancy and may even cause harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29
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  • Question 7 - A man gives birth to a baby weighing 4750 g at birth.

    What is...

    Correct

    • A man gives birth to a baby weighing 4750 g at birth.

      What is the appropriate way to describe this birth weight?

      Your Answer: Macrosomia

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia: Causes and Risks

      Macrosomia is a condition where a baby is born weighing between 4000-4500 grams, regardless of gestational age. This condition is associated with several factors, including maternal diabetes mellitus, rapid maternal weight gain during pregnancy, and past obstetric history. Male fetuses and post-term babies are also at an increased risk of macrosomia.

      Macrosomia can have harmful consequences for both the baby and the mother. Babies with macrosomia are at an increased risk of stillbirth, traumatic injury during birth, and brachial plexus injury. Mothers with macrosomic babies are more likely to require a caesarean delivery and may experience shoulder dystocia, traumatic lacerations to the birth canal, and postpartum hemorrhage.

      It is important for healthcare providers to monitor fetal growth and identify macrosomia early on to prevent potential complications. Women who are at an increased risk of macrosomia should receive appropriate prenatal care and be closely monitored throughout their pregnancy. By the causes and risks associated with macrosomia, healthcare providers can provide better care for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.3
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  • Question 8 - A 10-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with purpura. She appears to...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with purpura. She appears to be in good health, but her blood test reveals thrombocytopenia, lymphopenia, leukopenia, and anemia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children over the age of one. It occurs when a lymphocyte precursor, known as a ‘blast cell’, grows abnormally in the bone marrow, leading to a failure of normal blood cell production. This results in peripheral cytopenias, which can cause symptoms such as anaemia, recurrent infections, and purpura. While a raised peripheral white cell count may occur in severe or late-stage disease, it is not common.

      Compared to other types of leukaemia and lymphoma, ALL is more likely to present with bone marrow failure symptoms. Acute myeloid leukaemia, for example, is more common in the elderly and presents with a raised peripheral white cell count. Burkitt lymphoma, on the other hand, is a high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma that typically presents with lymphadenopathy. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is also more common in the elderly and presents with a peripheral lymphocytosis. Langerhans histiocytosis, a condition that affects antigen-presenting cells, is more common in young children and often affects the skin or bones. While it can cause marrow failure, it is a rare occurrence.

      In summary, ALL is a type of cancer that affects children and is caused by abnormal growth of blast cells in the bone marrow. It can cause symptoms of bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, recurrent infections, and purpura. While other types of leukaemia and lymphoma may present with different symptoms, ALL is more likely to present with bone marrow failure symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.3
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  • Question 9 - A woman gives birth to a preterm baby weighing 1250 g at birth....

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a preterm baby weighing 1250 g at birth.

      What is the appropriate way to describe this body weight?

      Your Answer: Low birth weight

      Explanation:

      Low Birth Weight and Intrauterine Growth Restriction

      Low birth weight (LBW) is a condition where a baby is born weighing less than 2500 grams. Very low birth weight babies, on the other hand, weigh less than 1500 grams. LBW is a significant contributor to neonatal mortality in both developed and developing countries. Babies born with LBW are also at greater risk of developing diabetes, heart disease, and poor linear growth later in life. The causes of LBW include prematurity, multiple pregnancy, ethnicity, maternal smoking during pregnancy, and family socio-economic status.

      It is important to note that LBW and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) are not interchangeable terms. IUGR, also known as small-for-gestational-age or small-for-dates, has no generally accepted standard definition. However, it is commonly defined as a birth weight less than the 10th or 5th percentile for gestational age, a birth weight less than 2500 g and gestational age greater than or equal to 37 weeks, or a birth weight less than two standard deviations below the mean value for gestational age.

      It is crucial to assess the suitability of the weight to gestational age in IUGR, whereas in LBW, no allowance is made for prematurity. The World Health Organization estimates that 13 million children are born with IUGR every year. the difference between LBW and IUGR can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and interventions for newborns and their mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.1
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.7
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Paediatrics (9/10) 90%
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