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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains, particularly in the shoulders and hands. She has been absent from work for the past 5 months due to her symptoms. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Despite a brief course of steroids and anti-inflammatory medication, she has not experienced any improvement. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points in different muscle groups, but no evidence of joint disease. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia and Differential Diagnosis

      Fibromyalgia is a functional condition that affects voluntary muscles, commonly presenting in females aged 20-40 years. It is characterized by multiple trigger points over soft tissues in the neck, intrascapular region, and spine, along with poor sleep patterns and fatigue. While there is no known cure, patients are encouraged to establish a regular sleep pattern and participate in a graded exercise program. Differential diagnosis is important to exclude other rheumatological conditions that may present similarly but have different treatment options. Polymyalgia rheumatica, polymyositis, hypothyroidism, and systemic lupus erythematosus are some of the conditions that need to be ruled out. Steroids are the mainstay of treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica, while hypothyroidism presents with different symptoms such as constipation, dry hair, and weight gain. Systemic lupus erythematosus typically presents with a butterfly rash over the face and other symptoms such as anaemia, pleuritic chest pain, and haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

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    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing severe foot pain. Her foot was trapped in the stirrup during the fall. An x-ray revealed displacement of her second and third metatarsal from the tarsus. What is the name of this injury?

      Your Answer: Lisfranc Injury

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Lisfranc injury is a type of foot injury that occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus. This injury is usually caused by excessive kinetic energy being placed on the midfoot, such as in a traffic collision. There are two types of Lisfranc injuries: direct and indirect. A direct injury occurs when the foot is crushed by a heavy object, while an indirect injury occurs when there is sudden rotational force on a plantar flexed foot.

      March fracture is another common foot injury that is caused by repetitive stress on the distal third of one of the metatarsal bones. This injury is often seen in soldiers and hikers who walk long distances. The onset of foot pain is gradual and progressive, and there is often trauma associated with it.

      Hallux Rigidus is a degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, making it painful and stiff. Jones fracture is a fracture in the meta-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal of the foot. Proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion, such as when stepping on a kerb or climbing steps.

      These different foot injuries have their own unique characteristics and causes. these injuries can help individuals take preventative measures to avoid them and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has...

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    • A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
      Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy

      The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.

      Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.

      On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.

      Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.

      In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 Ă— 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 Ă— 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen,...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen, and red left big toe. He states that it started yesterday and has become so excruciating that he cannot put on shoes. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with a stomach ulcer last year. The diagnosis is a first episode of acute gout. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Gout Flare in a Patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease

      When managing an acute gout flare in a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options. Colchicine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are both effective first-line treatments, but NSAIDs should be used with caution in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. If NSAIDs are used, proton-pump cover should be provided for gastric protection. Allopurinol should not be started until after the acute attack has been resolved, and paracetamol may be used as an adjunct for pain relief but would not treat the underlying cause of pain. Prednisolone may be used in patients unable to tolerate NSAIDs or colchicine, but there is no contraindication to a trial of oral colchicine in this patient. Overall, the choice of treatment should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult to get out of her chair. She also complains of a right-sided temporal headache, which is often triggered when she brushes her hair. A diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis is suspected.
      Which of the following blood tests is most useful in supporting the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Plasma viscosity

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Markers for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Temporal arthritis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica and temporal arthritis are inflammatory conditions that can cause significant morbidity if left untreated. Here are some diagnostic markers that can help support or rule out these conditions:

      Plasma viscosity: A raised plasma viscosity can support a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis, but it is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.

      Creatine kinase: A raised creatine kinase is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Monospot test: A positive monospot test is supportive of a diagnosis of Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Whole cell count (WCC): A raised WCC is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Bence Jones proteins: Presence of Bence Jones protein is supportive of a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, immediate treatment with prednisolone is crucial to prevent permanent loss of vision. A temporal artery biopsy can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with the doctor, the doctor observed a rash on both cheeks. A kidney biopsy sample showed deposits of immunoglobulin, C3, and fibrinogen in the basement membrane. Her serum analysis revealed elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that predominantly affects young women. It is characterized by a photosensitive butterfly-shaped rash on the face and joint manifestations. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, SLE does not cause severe destruction of joints. SLE is a multisystem condition that can affect many systems, including haematological, renal, respiratory, and cardiac systems. The underlying pathological mechanism of damage in SLE is immune complex deposition, which produces antibodies against several nuclear components of the body, especially against double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and dsDNA are associated with SLE, as is a low C3 and C4. The immunoglobulin, C3 and fibrinogen deposits found in this patient are classic of the immune complex deposition seen in SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
      What is the most effective treatment option at this point?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine

      Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs

      Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.

      Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (7/10) 70%
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