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  • Question 1 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer: Pappenheimer bodies

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing...

    Correct

    • A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and hair loss on the right side of his head. A skin scraping confirms the diagnosis of tinea capitis. What is the most common organism responsible for tinea capitis?

      Your Answer: Trichophyton tonsurans

      Explanation:

      The most common organism responsible for tinea capitis is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. There are three types of tinea, depending on what part of the body is infected:- Tinea capitis – scalp- Tinea corporis – trunk, legs or arms- Tinea pedis – feet-Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm): It is a cause for scarring alopecia mainly seen in children. If untreated, it can form a raised pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans. Tinea can also be caused by Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs.The diagnosis of tinea capitis and identification of the organism is possible from the skin lesions: – Scalp scrapings and Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mounts.- Wood’s lamp: Microsporum canis produces a green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp examination.Treatment: – Oral antifungals: terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections.- Griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. – Topical ketoconazole shampoo is recommended for the first two weeks to limit the transmission of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      313.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?

      Your Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age

      Explanation:

      A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      96.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - 6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring...

    Correct

    • 6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?

      Your Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding-this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was...

    Correct

    • A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: 5 inflation breaths

      Explanation:

      Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when:- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever.- The symptoms of OCD or tic symptoms suddenly become worse following a strep infection.The symptoms are usually dramatic, happen overnight and out of the blue,Å¥ and can include motor or vocal tics or both and obsessions, compulsions, or both. In addition to these symptoms, children may become moody or irritable, experience anxiety attacks, or show concerns about separating from parents or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch nodules of the iris. What is the most likely sign to observe on examination?

      Your Answer: Ectopia lentis

      Correct Answer: Axillary freckles

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common autosomal dominant disease. The Lisch nodule represents one of the most common NF1 ocular manifestations.NF1 is caused by a genetic mutation which can cause tumours to grow on nerve endings; these cutaneous neurofibromas are benign tumours which grow on the skin, often first appearing during the hormonal changes that occur in teenage years. They vary in size and can appear anywhere on the body. The number of neurofibromas present differs greatly between individuals and over a lifetime Cafe au lait spots (coffee coloured birthmarks) are often the first and most common sign of NF1, and these are often found at birth and are usually evident by 2 years of age.Other features of NF1 can include Lisch nodules of the iris (small pigmentation in the iris which causes no disturbance to vision), skin-fold freckling (freckling/pigmentation in the groyne and armpits), plexiform neurofibromas (or sub cutaneous neurofibromas) which are diffuse tumours that grow along a nerve and are found in at least 25 % of people with NF1, optic gliomas (tumour of the optic nerve), and skeletal complications including pseudarthrosis and scoliosis. Macrocephaly (large head size) is also common, and short stature is found in around a third of people with NF1. Rare complications include a risk of malignancy, organs being compromised by neurofibromas, seizures, and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      820.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals scrotal tenderness, redness, swelling, and associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni

      Explanation:

      Although all of the options may lead to an acute red scrotum, torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni is the most common cause at this age (age 12-16 years).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      599
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following do you expect to see?

      Your Answer: U waves in the electrocardiogram

      Correct Answer: High voltage T waves in the electrocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia presents with high voltage (peaked) T waves on ECG. Other features on ECG include smaller p-waves and wider QRS complexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      82.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer: 15-20%

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Correct

    • Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Cafe-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:Neurofibromatosis type IMcCune-Albright syndromeLegius syndromeTuberous sclerosisFanconi anaemiaIdiopathicAtaxia-telangiectasiaBasal cell nevus syndromeBenign congenital skin lesionBloom syndromeChediak-Higashi syndromeCongenital nevusGaucher diseaseHunter syndromeMaffucci syndromeMultiple mucosal neuroma syndromeNoonan syndromePulmonary StenosisSilver-Russell syndromeWatson syndromeWiskott-Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days...

    Correct

    • A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?

      Your Answer: Cholestatic jaundice

      Explanation:

      Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made.Which among the following statements is true about this condition?

      Your Answer: Fluid deficit should be replaced over 48, not 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Boluses of insulin are recommended

      Explanation:

      Among the statements provided, boluses of insulin are given to treat diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:- Fluids: Boluses of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.- Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.- Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.- Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1109.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following a urinary tract infection, which imaging modality is the best in the...

    Correct

    • Following a urinary tract infection, which imaging modality is the best in the assessment of renal scars?

      Your Answer: Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan

      Explanation:

      Renal scaring resulting from urinary tract infections can best be determined using Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy. The scan utilises technetium-99 mixed with the DMSA which is injected into the bloodstream. The radiological dye is taken up by the kidney where it binds to the proximal convoluted tubules. It therefore detects the size, shape and position of the kidney and any scars but is not as useful in assessing dynamic renal excretion. Ultrasound scans are better suited to assess hydronephrosis and dilated ureters. MAG3 scans and MCUG are able to determine the function of kidneys and detect obstructions such as posterior urethral valves and reflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of...

    Incorrect

    • A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: The change in blood pressure is clinically insignificant

      Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average

      Explanation:

      The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      98.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year...

    Incorrect

    • A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year old son who had grommets inserted 5 weeks ago for otitis media with effusion. The mother is concerned about traveling so she presents to the clinic with questions. The following should be discouraged for children with grommets:

      Your Answer: Swimming

      Correct Answer: Immersion of the head in soapy water

      Explanation:

      Grommets are small tubes surgically inserted into the tympanic membrane to drain viscous inflammatory fluid found in the middle ear in bilateral otitis media with effusion of more than three months duration. There is no indication against using in ear headphones or flying. Swimming or snorkelling can be reinforced with ear plugs. However immersion of the child’s head in soapy water is to be avoided as the water is more likely to enter the ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following should be used in the immediate management of the condition?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      Severe cyanotic heart diseases such as pulmonary stenosis, transposition of the great vessels, hypoplastic left heart syndrome and truncus arteriosus all run the risk of a poor prognosis for a neonate. To continue the supply of oxygen the ductus arteriosus must be kept patent. This can be done with the immediate administration of Prostaglandin E1 as a temporary measure until a surgical intervention such as an atrial septostomy can be done. The closure of the duct can subsequently be initiated with the administration of indomethacin and oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad; patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      84.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl...

    Incorrect

    • A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Failure to respond to own name

      Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture

      Explanation:

      18-month-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalLikes to hand things to others as play May have temper tantrums May be afraid of strangers Shows affection to familiar people Plays simple pretend, such as feeding a doll May cling to caregivers in new situations Points to show others something interesting Explores alone but with parent close by Language/CommunicationSays several single words Says and shakes head noť Points to show someone what he wants Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Knows what ordinary things are for; for example, telephone, brush, spoon Points to get the attention of others Shows interest in a doll or stuffed animal by pretending to feed Points to one body part Scribbles on his own Can follow 1-step verbal commands without any gestures; for example, sits when you say sit downť Movement/Physical DevelopmentWalks alone May walk up steps and run Pulls toys while walking Can help undress herself Drinks from a cup Eats with a spoon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival rates associated with this condition. Which of the following statistical methods is employed to predict the survival rates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Kaplan-Meier estimator, also known as the product limit estimator, is a non-parametric statistic used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is often used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria; proteinuria (10g/24h); creat60umol/l; and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths; Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap; advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and tragal tenderness. The exam shows a normal tympanic membrane and ear cleaning was done. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotic drop with steroid

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs described are suggestive of otitis externa. The key treatment for otitis externa is ear cleaning and antibiotic drops with steroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gigantism

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadism is found to be a feature in gigantism also known as acromegaly, a condition caused by growth hormone abnormalities. The most common cause of gigantism is a pituitary adenoma. Hypogonadism exists among other endocrinopathies found in gigantism. Other causes of hypogonadism include Kleinfelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by premature testicular failure. The other options listed, primary hypothyroidism, teratoma, tuberous sclerosis and hepatoblastoma are all associated with precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero

      Explanation:

      The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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Dermatology (5/5) 100%
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Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (3/3) 100%
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HIV (1/1) 100%
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