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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?
Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization?
Your Answer: 1 in 200
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tubal sterilization is a safe and effective surgical procedure that permanently prevents pregnancy. However, pregnancy can occur in 1 in 200 cases, according to international sources. In the 1st year after tubal sterilization, the estimated failure rate is 0.1-0.8% respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher. More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.All of the other choices are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which is a false statement about endometriosis?
Your Answer: Excisional surgery is the first-line treatment of choice for infertility caused by endometriosis
Correct Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence
Explanation:Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!
This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.
All other options are true statements about endometriosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa. Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?
Your Answer: It h as a good effect on acne
Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss
Explanation:Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago. She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure. Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.
Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.
Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?
Your Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.
Explanation:Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early. Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?
Your Answer: Painful abdominal bloating
Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea
Explanation:The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:
Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
Pain during intercourse
Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
Infertility
Painful urination during menstrual periods
Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nauseaAll options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. If she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following combinations of physical indications is most likely?
Your Answer: Profound shock with a rapid pulse and low BP.
Correct Answer: Little guarding but marked rebound tenderness in the suprapubic region.
Explanation:Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).
When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.
A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.
Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.
Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?
Your Answer: Before ovulation
Correct Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding
Explanation:it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.
For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.
All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test. As part of postcoital testing, she and her partner should have sexual intercourse on which day of her menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: Day 14
Explanation:Post coital literally means “after intercourse” which is when this fertility test is conducted. The patient has intercourse at home usually between cycle days 12 and 15 (or a day around the LH surge as measured by urinary ovulation predictor kits). Afterwards, the female comes to the office and a sample of the cervical mucus is taken for microscopic examination.
The post coital fertility test (PCT) allows for evaluation of sperm in the cervical mucus and to determine the consistency of the mucus. Sperm must swim through the cervical mucus from the vagina, through the cervix, and into the uterus. Normal sperm will be active and swim in approximate straight lines through the mucus. If the mucus is too thick, sperm impedance can be observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation). Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: From day 12 to day 17
Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17
Explanation:Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications. What is the best piece of advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms
Explanation:OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.
Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.
OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.
It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine. The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome
Explanation:As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.
This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).
PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
Symptoms and their timing
A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
Symptoms
B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
2) Subjective concentration problems
3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
Severity
D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
Confirmation of the condition
F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
Other medical explanations are ruled out.
G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives fora prescription for a combination oral contraceptive tablet. She is new to your clinic, having recently relocated for a new position at a junior college. She does not smoke or consume alcoholic beverages. Sumatriptan 20mg intranasal spray has helped her with recurring headaches with aura in the past. What are your plans for the future?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:The combination oral contraceptive pill is an unequivocal contraindication for this patient (migraine with aura). Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
There is no need for a neurologist’s assessment or a brain MRI because her migraines are managed with sumatriptan nasal spray. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative. Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future. Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
Explanation:Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:Ovarian hormone replacement
Restoration of fertility
Psychological well-being of the patientIt is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.
There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Explanation:Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.
Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common
Other risk factors include
obesity,
nulliparity,
diabetes mellitus, and
hypertension.The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.
Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister. What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.
Explanation:It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.
While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD
Explanation:Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless. The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hysterosalpingogram
Explanation:Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.
A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).
Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.
PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.
Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.
Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.
Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).
In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Good control of blood pressure
Explanation:Thee good news in regard to incontinence after childbirth is that there are many treatment options. Some common treatment options are listed below.
Food and drinks such as coffee, citrus, spicy foods and soda can all irritate the bladder. Cutting back on or eliminating these foods may help improve incontinence symptoms. Keeping weight within a healthy BMI range, and/or focusing on losing pregnancy weight, can also help with bladder control.
Kegels strengthen the pelvic floor, giving more control over urinary urges. Pelvic floor physical therapy can also help build muscle memory and strength. The abdominal muscles, hip muscles and pelvic floor muscles work together when a woman performs strengthening exercises like Kegels. Physical therapists identify areas of weakness in those muscle groups to help a woman build a strong core and pelvic floor.
The bladder is a muscle that should be regularly strengthened. Scheduling urination times and then gradually increasing the amount of time in between urination can increase bladder strength.
Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation is a nonsurgical treatment for overactive bladder and a form of neuromodulation therapy. During PTNS treatments, a doctor places a slim needle in the ankle where the tibial nerve is located. The needle delivers electrical impulses to the tibial nerve, which sends signals to the sacral nerves in the spine that control bladder and pelvic floor function. Over time, these pulses block nerve signals that are not working properly to lessen urinary incontinence symptoms.
Evaluating lifestyle factors. Excessive coughing due to smoking or being overweight can put unnecessary strain on the pelvic floor muscles. Certain drugs such as antidepressants and antihistamines can also have an impact on urinary incontinence.
Pessary. A pessary is a device inserted into the vagina to provide support for vaginal tissues, in turn, aiding in bladder incontinence.Surgical treatment options can help support the pelvic floor and may be recommended for women who have completed childbearing and have not had success with conservative therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of vague stomach pain. A unilocular cyst (3.8 x 4.3 x 3.0 cm) was discovered in the left ovary during a trans-abdominal ultrasound. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance, no further action required
Explanation:In premenopausal women, watchful waiting usually involves monitoring for symptoms (pelvic pain or pressure) and repeating the pelvic ultrasound after six to eight weeks. If the ovarian cyst does not enlarge or if it resolves during the period of watchful waiting, it does not usually require surgical removal. Some premenopausal women will be advised to take a birth control pill during this time to help prevent new ovarian cysts from developing.
If a cyst decreases in size or does not change, the ultrasound is often repeated at regular intervals until your healthcare provider is certain that the cyst is not growing. If the cyst resolves, no further testing or follow-up is required.
Surgery may be recommended in the following situations:
– A cyst is causing persistent pain or pressure, or may rupture or twist.
– A cyst appears on ultrasound to be caused by endometriosis and is removed for fertility reasons.
– Large cysts (>5 to 10 cm) are more likely to require surgical removal compared to smaller cysts. However, a large size does not predict whether a cyst is cancerous.
– If the cyst appears suspicious for cancer. If you have risk factors for ovarian cancer or the cyst looks potentially cancerous on imaging studies, your healthcare provider may recommend surgery.
– If the suspicion for ovarian cancer is low but the cyst does not resolve after several ultrasounds, you may choose to have it removed after a discussion with your healthcare provider. However, surgical removal is not usually necessary in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs. What would you advice her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill
Explanation:Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.
The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).
Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
pain and bleeding during or after sex
pain during or after cervical screening
light discharge of mucus
spotting between periods
Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.
Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight
Explanation:This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history of deep vein thrombosis. She was on progesterone-only tablets (POP) until fivemonths ago, when she decided to get pregnant. However, the pregnancy turned out to be ectopic. Thankfully, she made it through. She doesn't want to get pregnant again and asks if she may resume taking the tablets. Which of the following is the best piece of advise you could give?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She cannot take progesterone only pills
Explanation:Oestrogen-containing contraceptives are not recommended for this woman since she has a history of DVT. This is most likely why she was started on POP instead of standard combination tablets prior. Progesterone is also contraindicated with a history of ectopic pregnancy and should never be used again. Barrier approaches, for example, could be applied in this woman’s case.
The following are absolute contraindications to taking just progesterone pills:
– Pregnancy
– Breast cancer
– Vaginal bleeding that hasn’t been diagnosed
– Ectopic pregnancy history or a high risk of ectopic pregnancyProgesterone-only pills have the following relative contraindications:
– Active viral hepatitis
– Severe chronic liver disease
– Malabsorption syndrome
– Severe arterial disease
– Successfully treated breast cancer more than 5 years ago
– Concomitant use of hepatic enzyme inducing medications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women at the age of 55 is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combination with Alendronate is usually encouraged
Explanation:Taking hormone replacement therapy for more than 5 years can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. HRT is not recommended as treatment for osteoporosis alone in postmenopausal women older than 60. Raloxifene reduces risk of vertebral fracture in post menopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.
Explanation:This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.
The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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