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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old woman with a history of sickle cell disease visits her GP...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman with a history of sickle cell disease visits her GP complaining of sudden fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath during physical activity. She has always been healthy before this. However, her daughter has been sick with a fever, fatigue, and a rash on her face for the past few days.

      The patient's blood test results from three months ago showed a hemoglobin level of 116 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L), platelets at 178 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and a white blood cell count of 6.3 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L).

      Today's blood test results show a significant drop in hemoglobin levels to 71 g/L, platelets at 110 * 109/L, and a white blood cell count of 4.1 * 109/L. The reticulocyte count is also low at 0.1% (normal range: 0.5-1.5%).

      What is the most likely complication that has arisen in this case?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      A sudden decrease in haemoglobin is linked to aplastic crises in sickle cell disease. This condition is characterized by symptoms of anaemia and is often triggered by exposure to parvovirus B-19. The low reticulocyte count indicates acute bone marrow failure.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week. His temperature is 37.5 °C. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is slightly enlarged and mildly tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show his white blood cell count to be 13 000 mL. Urine culture grows > 100 000 Escherichia coli organisms. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6 ng/ml (normal < 5ng/ml). He receives antibiotic therapy and his clinical condition initially improves. However, his symptoms recur six times over the next 12 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Conditions: Differentiating Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis, Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia, Prostatic Adenocarcinoma, Prostatodynia, and Urothelial Carcinoma of the Urethra

      Prostate conditions can cause various symptoms and complications, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Chronic bacterial prostatitis, for instance, is characterized by recurrent bacteriuria and UTIs, often caused by E. coli. Nodular prostatic hyperplasia, on the other hand, can lead to an enlarged prostate and recurrent UTIs due to obstruction. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, which is usually non-tender, can cause a palpable nodule and significantly elevated PSA levels. Prostatodynia, meanwhile, presents with prostatitis-like symptoms but without inflammation or positive urine cultures. Lastly, urothelial carcinoma of the urethra is rare but may cause haematuria and UTI predisposition. Understanding these conditions and their distinguishing features can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing forgetfulness. He used to be able to manage his own medications, but now forgets to take them regularly. He has also been misplacing items around the house and forgetting important appointments. When his daughter tries to remind him of these things, he becomes defensive and irritable.
      His lab results show normal levels of vitamin B12, folate, thyroid hormones, and electrolytes. He does not screen positive for depression. His MMSE score is 20/30, and his brain MRI reveals general brain atrophy.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      First-Line Management for Alzheimer’s Disease: Medications to Consider

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a common form of dementia that primarily affects older adults. A patient’s clinical presentation, laboratory markers, MMSE results, and neuroimaging can help diagnose AD. Once diagnosed, the first-line management for AD typically involves cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine. These medications can provide modest symptomatic relief for some patients with AD. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy for patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage psychotic manifestations of AD, but it is not indicated in this scenario. Tacrine, a centrally-acting anticholinesterase medication, is rarely used due to its potent side-effect profile. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, can be used as adjunctive treatment for insomnia in patients with AD but is not indicated as monotherapy. Overall, the first-line management for AD involves cholinesterase inhibitors, with memantine as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?

      Your Answer: Anterior, posterior and septal cusps

      Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps

      Explanation:

      Different Cusps of Heart Valves

      The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.

      Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

      Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

      Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

      Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true regarding X-linked recessive inheritance? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding X-linked recessive inheritance?

      Your Answer: A female child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being a carrier

      Explanation:

      Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.

      In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When it's cold outside, her hands become extremely cold and slightly painful, and they change color. They start off very pale, then turn blue, and finally turn red. Upon examining her hands, there are no scars or signs of ulcers. She has no significant medical history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hand Discoloration and Pain

      Hand discoloration and pain can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is Raynaud’s phenomenon, also known as Raynaud’s disease. This condition is characterized by a color change in the hands from white to blue to red. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is benign and usually affects young women. Chemical hand warmers can be used for symptomatic relief. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s or Raynaud’s syndrome is caused by an underlying disease process or medication. It can cause pain, scarring, and ulceration of the fingertips.

      Thoracic outlet syndrome is another condition that can cause hand pain and paraesthesiae. It is characterized by unilateral symptoms and can affect various areas such as the neck, arm, and hand. Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a rare disease that causes inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries. This leads to symptoms similar to acute ischaemia such as pain, claudication, and absent pulses.

      Vibration white finger is a condition that can occur after prolonged use of power tools. It causes whiteness, numbness, and loss of dexterity in the fingers. Finally, blue finger syndrome is a rare condition that results from spontaneous thrombosis of one finger.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She...

    Correct

    • Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus

      Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.

      Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at 28 weeks gestation for her third pregnancy. During...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at 28 weeks gestation for her third pregnancy. During an ultrasound at 12 weeks, it was discovered that she was carrying dichorionic diamniotic twins. She is admitted to the hospital due to painless, bright red bleeding per vaginum. She has undergone two previous caesarian sections. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Placenta praevia is a pregnancy complication characterized by the attachment of the placenta to the lower part of the uterus. The main symptom is painless bleeding occurring after the 24th week of gestation. Risk factors include a history of placenta praevia, previous caesarean section, damage to the endometrium, and multiple pregnancies. Placenta praevia frequently results in a high presenting part or abnormal lie due to the placenta’s low position.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent...

    Correct

    • A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent eye problems. The baby has been having persistent sticky discharge and the mother has tried various drops and cleaning methods without success. Upon examination, the baby's pupils are equal and reactive, the conjunctiva shows no signs of inflammation, the sclera is white, and the eyelids appear healthy. The baby has a normal gaze, a normal red reflex, and tracks objects in their visual field appropriately.
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the best advice to offer the mother?

      Your Answer: The condition usually self-resolves by 1 year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.

      To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis,...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis, where he is booked in for a DEXA scan. His T-score from his scan is recorded as -2.0, indicating decreased bone mineral density. What patient factors are necessary to calculate his Z-score?

      Your Answer: Age, gender, ethnicity

      Explanation:

      When interpreting DEXA scan results, it is important to consider the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. The Z-score is adjusted for these factors and provides a comparison of the patient’s bone density to that of an average person of the same age, sex, and race. Meanwhile, the T-score compares the patient’s bone density to that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex. It is worth noting that ethnicity can impact bone mineral density, with some studies indicating that Black individuals tend to have higher BMD than White and Hispanic individuals.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed