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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with weakness in her arms...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with weakness in her arms and legs. She had recently attended a BBQ where she consumed canned food. During the examination, you observe weakness in all four limbs, bilateral ptosis, and slurred speech. Her husband reports that she experienced diarrhea the day before and has been constipated today. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Botulism

      Explanation:

      Botulism: Causes, Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Botulism is a severe illness caused by the botulinum toxin, which is produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum. There are three main types of botulism: food-borne, wound, and infant botulism. Food-borne botulism occurs when food is not properly canned, preserved, or cooked, and becomes contaminated with infected soil. Wound botulism occurs when a wound becomes infected with the bacteria, usually in intravenous drug abusers. Infant botulism occurs when a baby ingests spores of the C. botulinum bacteria.

      Symptoms of botulism can occur between two hours and eight days after exposure to the toxin. These symptoms include blurred vision, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking (dysphonia), diarrhea and vomiting, and descending weakness/paralysis that may progress to flaccid paralysis. In certain serotypes, patients may rapidly progress to respiratory failure. It is important to note that patients remain alert throughout the illness.

      Botulism is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The antitoxin is effective, but recovery may take several months. Guillain-Barré syndrome, which is an ascending paralysis that often occurs after a viral infection, would not fit the case vignette described. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune chronic condition that typically worsens with exercise and improves with rest. A cerebrovascular accident usually causes weakness in muscles supplied by one specific brain area, whereas the weakness in botulism is generalized. Viral gastroenteritis is not usually associated with weakness, unless it is Guillain-Barré syndrome a few weeks after the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      200.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He has recently been swimming in an indoor swimming pool with his friends with his contact lenses on.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. There is a white dot on the cornea, and with fluorescein, it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal abrasion

      Correct Answer: Microbial keratitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Microbial Keratitis from Other Eye Infections

      Microbial keratitis, specifically Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK), should be considered in patients who have been swimming with contact lenses. Symptoms include ocular pain, redness, blurred vision, light sensitivity, foreign body sensation, and excessive tearing. Ring-like stromal infiltrate and lid edema may also be present. AK is often confused with Herpes simplex keratitis in its early stages and with fungal keratitis or corneal ulcer in its advanced stages. Other potential eye infections, such as viral keratitis, corneal abrasion, corneal foreign body, and fungal keratitis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      96.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl presents with diffuse lower limb bone pain and tenderness. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with diffuse lower limb bone pain and tenderness. Her past medical history and family history are mostly unknown, but she is known to have been malnourished and is currently under the care of social services.

      During examination, she appears malnourished and pale, with bossing of her forehead, bowing of her legs, and prominent kyphoscoliosis of her spine. She has a waddling gait when walking, and her weight is below the 2nd centile according to a growth chart.

      What radiological feature may be observed given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Joint space narrowing

      Correct Answer: Joint widening

      Explanation:

      Rickets can cause joint widening due to an excess of non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms of forehead bossing, bowing of the legs, waddling gait, bone pain, and kyphoscoliosis of the spine. The patient’s malnourishment and pale appearance suggest a possible dietary deficiency of vitamin D, which can lead to inadequate mineralization of developing bones. Ballooning, joint space narrowing, and osteolysis are not associated with rickets and do not explain the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Rickets: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition called osteomalacia can occur.

      There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and lack of sunlight. Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as the rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, and soft skull bones in early life (known as craniotabes).

      To diagnose rickets, doctors may perform tests to measure vitamin D levels, serum calcium levels, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Treatment for rickets typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.

      In summary, rickets is a condition that affects bone development and can lead to soft and easily deformed bones. It is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D and can be predisposed by several factors. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, limb abnormalities, and swelling at the costochondral junction. Treatment involves oral vitamin D supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.3
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the standard infection screening?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that HIV testing be included as a standard part of antenatal screening.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      60.9
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  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after noticing bruising on her arms. The bruising started 2 days ago and has gotten worse. The girl has no significant medical history, but had a mild cold 4 weeks ago. Upon examination, the only notable finding is extensive bruising on her upper limbs and neck. Routine blood tests were conducted and the results are as follows (with age-appropriate reference ranges): Hb 85 g/L (110-140), Platelets 68 * 109/L (150-450), WBC 19.0 * 109/L (5.0-17.0), Neutrophils 0.72 * 109/L (1.5-8.0).

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a 6-year-old boy presenting with bruising, anaemia, and neutropenia is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, which is the most common form of childhood leukaemia. Other forms of leukaemia, such as acute myeloid leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, and chronic myeloid leukaemia, are less likely to be found in children and therefore not the best answer. It is important to note that CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome and often presents with fatigue and mild anaemia symptoms.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?

      Your Answer: BMI

      Correct Answer: Migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne on her back, chest and face. She has comedones, pustules and scars that have not improved with previous treatments. The dermatologist decides to prescribe isotretinoin. What other medication should be prescribed alongside this?

      Your Answer: Topical retinoid

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The patient has severe acne and topical treatment has not been effective. The dermatologist will prescribe oral isotretinoin, which is a specialist drug that can only be prescribed in secondary care. However, isotretinoin is teratogenic, so women of reproductive age must use at least two methods of contraception while taking the drug. The combined oral contraceptive pill is often co-prescribed with isotretinoin to help balance the hormonal profile and improve the skin condition. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice for mild to moderate acne, but they are not indicated for severe acne. Oral oxytetracycline can be used in combination with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide for moderate acne, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Topical erythromycin is used for mild to moderate acne and should always be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide to prevent microbial resistance. Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for mild or moderate acne and can be combined with a topical retinoid or antibiotic, or an oral antibiotic for moderate acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      100.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old...

    Incorrect

    • The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?

      Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      184.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A young couple presents for infertility assessment. The man, a 22-year-old barman, has...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple presents for infertility assessment. The man, a 22-year-old barman, has a history of recurrent upper and lower respiratory tract infections. Review of systems is remarkable for cough and shortness of breath on exertion. He often has copious, foul-smelling sputum, which is occasionally blood-tinged. His bowel habits are normal, except for intermittent constipation for a year. He has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. He has never smoked and drinks alcohol occasionally, on weekends. His vital signs are within normal limits. His nasal mucosa appears congested. There is mild maxillary sinus tenderness on palpation. Scattered wheezing and crackles are noted on lung auscultation. Neurologic and abdominal examinations are otherwise normal. Semen analysis reveals abnormal sperm motility.
      What is the most likely additional finding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis and liver fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Lack of heart sounds on the left chest

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare congenital condition characterized by ciliary dyskinesia. This leads to sinusitis, situs inversus, and bronchiectasis, resulting in the accumulation of foul-smelling sputum and recurrent infections. Infertility due to sperm immotility is also common. The heart is positioned on the right side of the chest, leading to a lack of heart sounds on the left. Atopic allergy and asthma are not compatible with the patient’s symptoms, which indicate bronchiectasis. Cystic fibrosis is not the diagnosis as it typically presents with azoospermia and malabsorption. α-1-antitrypsin deficiency is associated with liver injury and emphysema but not copious sputum. The combination of haematuria, glomerulonephritis, sinusitis, and haemoptysis would suggest granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), but this diagnosis does not fit the given scenario as it does not involve infertility or bronchiectasis symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You suspect your colleague John has been taking more ‘sick days’ than needed....

    Incorrect

    • You suspect your colleague John has been taking more ‘sick days’ than needed. You happened to see one of his social media posts of him out for lunch when he was allegedly at home because he was sick.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to your friend in private about what is really going on

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions to Take When Concerned About a Friend’s Behavior

      When you notice a friend’s behavior that is concerning, it can be difficult to know what to do. However, there are appropriate actions to take that can help your friend and maintain your relationship. The most appropriate action is to speak to your friend in private about what is really going on. This gives your friend the chance to open up to you and share any issues they may be going through. Reporting your friend to their educational or clinical supervisor should be done in stages, starting locally and working your way up. Spreading rumors about your friend is unprofessional and will not solve the issue. Sharing your concerns with another friend who knows your friend well can also be helpful, but it is important to approach your friend first. By taking appropriate actions, you can help your friend and maintain a healthy relationship.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Passmed