-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged man with a hemiparesis starts to tear up at the slightest provocation, even though he insists that he is not feeling down. What is your suspicion?
Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Pathological crying
Explanation:Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
As per Rapoport, what is the principle of permissiveness in therapeutic communities?
Your Answer: To follow rules and respect boundaries
Explanation:Rapoport’s four principles of therapeutic communities include permissiveness, democratisation, communalism, and reality confrontation. Permissiveness allows members to express themselves freely while respecting the community’s rules and boundaries. This principle encourages members to investigate and discuss their behavior to gain insight. However, permissiveness should not negatively affect other members of exclude them. Communalism involves communication, task-sharing, and interdependence, promoting belonging and primary bond development. Reality confrontation helps members find their place among others. Democratisation involves participation in decision-making and voting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
What is the closest estimate of the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia in England?
Your Answer: 0.60%
Explanation:Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What is the average suicide rate among individuals in England who utilize mental health services?
Your Answer: 1 in 10,000
Correct Answer: 1 in 1000
Explanation:2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
What is the primary requirement in brief psychodynamic therapy?
Your Answer: No history of self harm
Correct Answer: A single focus for therapy
Explanation:Brief Psychodynamic Psychotherapy: A Time-Limited Treatment
Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is a type of therapy that is based on psychodynamic principles and is designed to be completed within a limited time frame, typically 10-12 sessions. This therapy is particularly effective when there is a specific focus of problem that the patient is dealing with. However, it is important that the patient is highly motivated and able to think in feeling terms for the therapy to be successful.
There are different subtypes of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy, and some factors are considered contraindications for this type of therapy. These include serious suicide attempts, substance abuse, and marked acting out. Overall, brief psychodynamic psychotherapy can be a useful tool for addressing specific issues and helping patients achieve their therapeutic goals within a limited time frame.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
How can the negative predictive value of a screening test be calculated accurately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TN / (TN + FN)
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
What intervention has been proven to effectively decrease suicidal behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement about therapeutic alliance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The strength of the therapeutic bond is not highly correlated with the duration of the treatment
Explanation:Therapeutic Alliance
The therapeutic alliance is a collaborative partnership between the doctor and the patient that is crucial for successful treatment outcomes. Research has shown that the client’s perception of the relationship with their therapist is a stronger predictor of treatment success than the therapist’s perception. The strength of the therapeutic bond is not necessarily related to the length of service, as a strong relationship can be established in a short amount of time. Therapist self-awareness can also positively impact the development of a therapeutic alliance. It is important to maintain a positive working relationship when dealing with family members of the client. Additionally, the presence of hope can significantly impact how individuals cope with stress, difficulty, and problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What is the likelihood of spina bifida occurring in a fetus if a pregnant woman is prescribed Epilim?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:Valproate Use During Pregnancy Can Cause Birth Defects and Developmental Problems in Children
Valproate is a medication that is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. However, when taken by pregnant women, it can cause serious birth defects in their babies. Studies have shown that around 1 in 10 babies born to women who took valproate during pregnancy will have a birth defect. These defects can include malformations of the spine, face, skull, limbs, heart, kidney, urinary tract, and sexual organs.
In addition to birth defects, children exposed to valproate in the womb may also experience developmental problems. About 3-4 children in every 10 may have issues with learning to walk and talk, lower intelligence than their peers, poor speech and language skills, and memory problems. There is also evidence to suggest that these children may be at a higher risk of developing autism or autistic spectrum disorders, as well as symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
It is important for women who are pregnant of planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking valproate with their healthcare provider. Alternative medications of treatment options may be available that are safer for both the mother and the developing baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
What symptom is commonly observed in individuals with bipolar disorder and psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A new clinical trial has found a correlation between alcohol consumption and lung cancer. Considering the well-known link between alcohol consumption and smoking, what is the most probable explanation for this new association?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confounding
Explanation:The observed link between alcohol consumption and lung cancer is likely due to confounding factors, such as cigarette smoking. Confounding variables are those that are associated with both the independent and dependent variables, in this case, alcohol consumption and lung cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended approach for managing a patient with severe depression according to NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRI + high-intensity psychological interventions
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which country's data is excluded from the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: England
Explanation:World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries
The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.
As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
What is the average suicide rate in the UK population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The suicide rate in England is typically 1 in 10,000, while for individuals who use mental health services in England, the suicide rate is 1 in 1000.
2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman has a 10 year history of treatment resistant bipolar disorder, currently stabilized on lithium. She lives independently but has noticed a gradual weight gain of 10 pounds over the past year and is worried about it.
What is the next step in addressing her weight gain concerns?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise dietary counselling and exercise
Explanation:To optimize the effectiveness of weight control measures, it is recommended to provide dietary counseling and encourage exercise to patients on clozapine before weight gain occurs. Nonetheless, if the patient is stable on clozapine, these interventions should still be implemented as a first step.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A young woman with bipolar disorder who takes lithium has become pregnant. Despite the potential teratogenic effects on the baby, she refuses to stop lithium as it has been the only medication that has effectively managed her symptoms in the past. What course of action would you recommend in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue on the current dose of lithium and monitor monthly until week 36 and then weekly thereafter
Explanation:It is important to take the patient’s wishes into consideration and simply telling her to stop taking lithium is not appropriate. Providing her with all the necessary information and assisting her in making a decision is the best course of action. According to the NICE Guidelines, it is recommended to continue the current dose of lithium and monitor levels monthly until week 36, and then weekly thereafter. It is common for levels to decrease during pregnancy, so adjustments to the dose may be necessary to maintain therapeutic levels.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about individuals with rapid cycling bipolar disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It lasts less than 2 years in approximately 50% of patients
Explanation:If rapid cycling bipolar disorder occurs, propranolol should be discontinued as it is believed to be a contributing factor.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What is one of the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder according to DSM-5?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Often bullies, threatens, of intimidates others
Explanation:Individuals diagnosed with conduct disorder typically engage in bullying, intimidation, and threats towards others, with a primary emphasis on their behavior. In contrast, oppositional defiant disorder can be viewed as a milder form of conduct disorder, as it encompasses both behavior and emotions.
Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
In a randomised controlled trial investigating the initial management of sexual dysfunction with two drugs, some patients withdraw from the study due to medication-related adverse effects. What is the appropriate method for analysing the resulting data?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Intention to Treat Analysis in Randomized Controlled Trials
Intention to treat analysis is a statistical method used in randomized controlled trials to analyze all patients who were randomly assigned to a treatment group, regardless of whether they completed of received the treatment. This approach is used to avoid the potential biases that may arise from patients dropping out of switching between treatment groups. By analyzing all patients according to their original treatment assignment, intention to treat analysis provides a more accurate representation of the true treatment effects. This method is widely used in clinical trials to ensure that the results are reliable and unbiased.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is the primary treatment recommended by NICE for managing conduct disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group based parent training
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man with schizophrenia requests to stop taking his chlorpromazine medication after hearing from another patient that it is outdated. Despite the fact that chlorpromazine has effectively managed his symptoms since he was diagnosed at age 20, the patient insists on switching to a newer and more modern medication. Which of the following atypical antipsychotics would be the least appropriate for him to start taking next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Before starting clozapine, it is recommended to try at least two other antipsychotic medications. However, in this particular case, the individual has only been treated with one antipsychotic.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
What is the approximate occurrence rate of schizophrenia among individuals under the age of 15?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 2000
Explanation:Schizophrenia in children is rare compared to adults, with a prevalence estimate of 0.05% for those under 15 years old. There are two classifications based on age of onset: early onset schizophrenia (EOS) when symptoms appear between 13-18 years old, and very early onset schizophrenia (VEOS) when symptoms appear at of before 13 years old. EOS and VEOS have atypical features compared to adult-onset schizophrenia, including insidious onset, more severe neurodevelopmental abnormalities, terrifying visual hallucinations, constant inappropriate of blunted effects, higher rates of familial psychopathology, minor response to treatment, and poorer outcomes. Preliminary data suggests that VEOS and EOS may be due to greater familial vulnerability from genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors. Poor outcomes are most reliably linked to a positive history of premorbid difficulties, greater symptom severity (especially negative symptoms) at baseline, and longer duration of untreated psychosis. Age at psychosis onset and sex are not consistent predictors of outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate definition of the standardised mortality ratio?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ratio between the observed number of deaths in a study population and the number of deaths that would be expected
Explanation:Calculation of Standardised Mortality Ratio (SMR)
To calculate the SMR, age and sex-specific death rates in the standard population are obtained. An estimate for the number of people in each category for both the standard and study populations is needed. The number of expected deaths in each age-sex group of the study population is calculated by multiplying the age-sex-specific rates in the standard population by the number of people in each category of the study population. The sum of all age- and sex-specific expected deaths gives the expected number of deaths for the whole study population. The observed number of deaths is then divided by the expected number of deaths to obtain the SMR.
The SMR can be standardised using the direct of indirect method. The direct method is used when the age-sex-specific rates for the study population and the age-sex-structure of the standard population are known. The indirect method is used when the age-specific rates for the study population are unknown of not available. This method uses the observed number of deaths in the study population and compares it to the number of deaths that would be expected if the age distribution was the same as that of the standard population.
The SMR can be interpreted as follows: an SMR less than 1.0 indicates fewer than expected deaths in the study population, an SMR of 1.0 indicates the number of observed deaths equals the number of expected deaths in the study population, and an SMR greater than 1.0 indicates more than expected deaths in the study population (excess deaths). It is sometimes expressed after multiplying by 100.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What is the maximum duration for which Risperidone can be prescribed for persistent aggression in Alzheimer's patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
How can the concept of a hierarchy of treatment targets be described?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy
Explanation:Dialectical Behavioural Therapy (DBT) is a form of psychotherapy that is tailored for patients with borderline personality disorder. It combines behavioural therapy with aspects of Zen Buddhism and dialectical thinking to help patients develop important interpersonal and emotional regulation skills. DBT has five functions, including enhancing behavioural capabilities, improving motivation to change, assuring new capabilities generalise to the natural environment, structuring the environment so that appropriate behaviours are reinforced, and enhancing motivation of the therapist.
DBT uses a hierarchy of treatment targets to help the therapist determine the order in which problems should be addressed. The treatment targets in order of priority are life-threatening behaviours, therapy-interfering behaviours, quality of life behaviours, and skills acquisition. DBT skills include mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and emotion regulation. Overall, DBT is an effective form of therapy for patients with multiple problems, and it helps them develop the skills they need to achieve their goals and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about the issue of alcohol misuse in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The highest levels of binge drinking occur in people aged 16-24
Explanation:Prevalence of Substance Misuse, with a Focus on Alcohol Misuse
Alcohol misuse is a major issue, particularly in the UK, where it is among the highest rates in Europe. Men are more likely to experience both alcohol dependence and binge drinking than women. Specifically, 6% of men and 2% of women experience alcohol dependence, while 21% of men and 9% of women engage in binge drinking. It is worth noting that this figure contradicts the findings from the NPMS in 2000.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
The application of technology in mental health care is advancing quickly. What technological advancements have been effective in managing auditory hallucinations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avatar therapy
Explanation:The advancements in technology and the widespread availability of smartphones and internet access can be utilized to improve patient care and equip clinicians with more tools for diagnosing and treating mental illnesses. One promising approach is avatar therapy, which has shown positive results in treating auditory hallucinations in patients who did not respond well to medication. Additionally, automated objective behavioral analysis has been used to monitor and predict mood and emotional responses. However, online cognitive behavioral therapy has not been found to be effective in treating auditory hallucinations. Personal Zen is a mobile and tablet app that gamifies techniques proven to be helpful in managing anxiety and stress. Finally, virtual reality exposure therapy has been used to treat post-traumatic stress disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which case exemplifies the responsibility of the police in providing information to potential victims?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osman
Explanation:Osman Warnings
The Osman vs UK case involved a teacher who had an unhealthy fixation on one of his students, Osman. Tragically, this obsession led to the death of Osman’s father and Osman himself being injured. The police were heavily criticized for failing to issue a warning to the family, despite having information that could have alerted them to the danger posed by Osman’s teacher. This failure to act highlights the importance of Osman warnings, which are designed to protect individuals from harm by notifying them of potential threats. By issuing such warnings, law enforcement agencies can help prevent tragedies like the one that occurred in the Osman case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is the duration requirement for psychotic symptoms to be classified as an acute and transient psychotic disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is the most suitable risk assessment tool to anticipate the likelihood of future domestic violence in a husband who has been accused of common assault against his wife?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SARA
Explanation:There are various risk assessment tools available for predicting the likelihood of domestic violence, general violence, and sexual violence. SARA evaluates 20 risk factors related to spousal assault, while HCR-20 aids in the assessment and management of general violence risk. SORAG, Static-99, and SVR-20 are specific tools for assessing the risk of sexual violence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)