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Question 1
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A 15-year-old boy visits his GP complaining of dull, aching pain and swelling in the distal part of his right thigh that has been present for 4 months. He has a history of exercise-induced asthma and a family history of retinoblastoma. During the examination, a knee X-ray is performed, revealing a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur with a 'sunburst' pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of generalised fatigue and weakness. He reports difficulty walking or standing for extended periods and struggles to get up from chairs. During examination, a violaceous non-oedematous rash is observed around his eyes, and his hands are extremely dry. Additionally, rough red papules are present over the extensor surfaces of his fingers. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day for the last 45 years.
What is the most crucial next step in managing his likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malignancy screening
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is often associated with an underlying malignancy, therefore malignancy screening is necessary. The patient’s symptoms, including proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash, dry hands, and Gottron’s papules, suggest a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. While an electromyogram may aid in diagnosis, it is not essential. Fundoscopy and referral to ophthalmology are not necessary as there are no eye-related symptoms. Instead, screening for malignancy through chest x-rays, CT scans, and blood tests is crucial.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with severe Raynaud's phenomenon and finger arthralgia. Upon examination, you observe tight and shiny skin on her fingers, as well as several telangiectasia on her upper torso and face. She is also awaiting a gastroscopy for heartburn investigation. Which antibody is the most specific for the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies
Explanation:The most specific test for limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis among patients with systemic sclerosis is the anti-centromere antibodies.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe pain in his left thigh. He has a history of recurrent UTIs and currently has a catheter in place. Upon examination, he is febrile and experiences significant tenderness in the left thigh, making it difficult to move his knee. Blood and bone cultures both come back positive, leading to a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and stage 3 chronic kidney disease presents with complaints of back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. His GP has referred him for further evaluation. Upon examination, the patient is lying on his left side with his hips slightly flexed. Attempting to palpate his abdomen causes pain in his left hip and back. The patient experiences increased pain when asked to flex his hip against resistance or hyperextend his hip. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.3 ºC, heart rate 95/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and blood pressure 140/82 mmHg. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: IV antibiotics and percutaneous drainage
Explanation:In cases of suspected iliopsoas abscess, antibiotics alone are unlikely to provide a cure. If there is a high clinical suspicion of a retrocaecal appendix, urgent laparoscopy and IV antibiotics may be necessary. However, this condition typically presents with acute pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen upon hip extension. Neoplastic spinal cord compression may require oral dexamethasone and an oncological review, as it initially presents with back pain and can progress to neurological deficits.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward after undergoing a total hip replacement. She sustained a neck of femur fracture after falling from a standing position while vacuuming her living room. She was brought to the hospital by ambulance with a shortened, externally rotated left leg. The hip x-ray confirmed the fracture, and she underwent surgery promptly. The patient has a medical history of mild knee osteoarthritis and type II diabetes mellitus. She has been in the hospital for three days, is weight-bearing, and is ready for discharge. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation have been initiated.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Commence alendronate
Explanation:After a fragility fracture in women aged 75 or older, a DEXA scan is not required to diagnose osteoporosis and start bisphosphonate treatment, with alendronate being the first-line option. The patient in the scenario has already experienced a fragility fracture and is over 75, so a DEXA scan is unnecessary as it will not alter her management. A skeletal survey is also not needed as there are no indications of bone pathology. Raloxifene is a second-line treatment for osteoporosis and not appropriate for the patient who has had a neck of femur fracture, making alendronate the initial choice.
The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old male presented to the emergency department after sustaining a shoulder dislocation during a game of football. The medical team reduced his shoulder and immobilized it with a sling. During the examination, the doctor assessed the sensation in the 'regimental badge area' and found it to be normal. Which nerve is frequently affected in cases of shoulder joint dislocation, and which nerve was the doctor testing for in this scenario?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The most common type of shoulder dislocation is the anterior dislocation, which can occur after a fall on the arm or shoulder. It is important to check for any nerve or pulse damage, especially in the axillary region. A radiograph should always be done to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves reduction using various methods, as well as pain relief and immobilization with a sling. Posterior dislocations are rare and usually caused by seizures or electrocution. They can be identified on x-ray by the light bulb sign and should be referred to orthopedic surgeons for management. This information is sourced from the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties, 9th Edition, page 740.
Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.
There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for two weeks. The pain is more intense on the right side and is aggravated when she combs her hair. She also experiences discomfort in her jaw when eating. Her neurological and fundoscopy examinations reveal no abnormalities, and she is referred to the emergency department.
Upon admission, the patient is prescribed high-dose oral prednisolone and undergoes a temporal artery biopsy, which yields normal results. What is the next most appropriate course of action for her treatment?Your Answer: Continue high-dose prednisolone and repeat biopsy
Explanation:Performing an emergency computed tomography (CT) of the brain is not necessary for this patient. Emergency CT head scans are typically reserved for cases of head injury with symptoms such as reduced GCS, repeated vomiting, skull base fracture signs, post-traumatic seizures, or focal neurological deficits. Elderly patients may require a CT scan if they have experienced a fall with head injury or confusion.
Stopping high-dose prednisolone and referring the patient to a neurology clinic is not recommended. With a high suspicion of GCA, it is crucial to continue corticosteroid treatment to prevent inflammation from spreading to the eye. Any vision changes caused by GCA are typically irreversible, making it an acute problem that cannot wait for a referral to a neurology clinic.
Switching the patient to a lower dose of oral prednisolone is not advised. There is no evidence to suggest that reducing the dose of prednisolone is beneficial for GCA if the biopsy is negative. It is important to remember that a negative biopsy result may be due to skip lesions and not because the diagnosis is less likely.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with significant pain in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint that started quickly overnight. He has tried taking paracetamol but this failed to reduce the pain sufficiently. On closer inspection, there appears to be much effusion around the joint, which is also tender to palpation. The patient is at the end of his third month of being treated for tuberculosis.
The patient’s pulse is 89 bpm, respiratory rate is 14/min, temperature is 37.1oC, and blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg. A joint aspirate sample is taken.
What is the likely result of inspecting the joint aspirate?Your Answer: Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals on microscopy
Explanation:The correct answer is that joint aspiration in gout will reveal needle-shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals when viewed under polarised light. This patient is experiencing an acute gout flare, which is more likely to occur due to their age and use of anti-tuberculosis medications. Pyrazinamide and ethambutol, two of the medications they are taking, can increase uric acid levels and further increase the risk of a gout flare. The other answer options are incorrect as they describe different crystal shapes or conditions that are less likely based on the patient’s clinical history.
Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.
To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman complains of feeling generally fatigued and experiencing muscle aches. She reports stiffness and pain in her back, arms, and thighs, especially in the morning. These symptoms have persisted for the past two weeks, despite her previously being in good health. Upon examination, the only notable finding is tenderness in her deltoid and thigh muscles, with normal muscle strength. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to your ward following a vertebral fracture sustained while twisting in her car seat. The orthopaedic team is managing this conservatively. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Currently, she is taking amlodipine and omeprazole. She previously took alendronic acid but stopped due to severe reflux. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate?
Your Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:To prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases, bisphosphonates and denosumab are viable options. However, if the patient’s eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is the preferred choice. Alendronic acid should be avoided due to the patient’s history of severe reflux during previous use. Denosumab is a novel treatment for osteoporosis that inhibits the development of osteoclasts by blocking RANKL. It is administered via subcutaneous injection and is also effective in preventing skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors. Cinacalcet is not indicated for the management of osteoporosis or pathological fractures, but rather for hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia in parathyroid carcinoma. Hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) is not recommended for the treatment of osteoporosis in older postmenopausal women due to its unfavorable risk-benefit ratio.
Denosumab: A New Treatment for Osteoporosis
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. It is administered as a subcutaneous injection every six months at a dose of 60mg. A larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors.
When it comes to managing osteoporosis, oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment, with alendronate being the preferred option. If alendronate is not tolerated, an alternative bisphosphonate such as risedronate or etidronate may be used. Next-line medications are only started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria are met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were previously recommended as next-line drugs, but due to safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate, denosumab is becoming increasingly popular.
Denosumab is generally well-tolerated, with dyspnea and diarrhea being the most common side effects. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should look out for patients complaining of unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is a promising new treatment for osteoporosis that may be particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates or who have other risk factors that make them unsuitable for these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old tripped and fell while running, injuring his left calf. He experienced a dull ache, tightness, and mild swelling in the calf. Despite the discomfort, he continued running for another 20 minutes before stopping. However, the pain gradually increased, and he felt extreme discomfort when stretching and pulling his toes up. His partner convinced him to seek medical attention at the emergency department.
During the examination, the doctor noticed that the left calf was 6cm larger in circumference than the right calf. The anterior compartment musculature was tender, and passive dorsiflexion caused a significant amount of pain. However, all peripheral pulses were present, and there were no changes in sensation or color.
What initial investigation could be performed to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Compartment pressure monitoring
Explanation:Compartment syndrome is characterized by pain when the affected area is passively stretched.
When a patient presents with pain and swelling after recent trauma, compartment syndrome is a likely diagnosis. Pain that worsens over time and is exacerbated by passive stretching are key indicators of this condition. While other symptoms such as pulselessness, pallor, paraesthesia, and paralysis may also be present, they are not necessary for a suspicion of compartment syndrome.
Although compartment syndrome can be diagnosed clinically, measuring compartment pressure is the preferred method for confirming the diagnosis. X-rays are not useful in detecting compartment syndrome and may not show any abnormalities. The ankle-brachial pressure index is used to diagnose critical limb ischemia, not compartment syndrome. Doppler ultrasound can be used to examine the vasculature of the lower leg, but it is not a diagnostic tool for compartment syndrome.
Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4-year-old is brought in with a fracture that affects the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis of their left femur. What Salter-Harris classification does this fracture fall under?
Your Answer: Salter-Harris IV
Explanation:A Salter Harris 4 fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in children and involves damage to the growth plate, as well as the metaphysis and epiphysis of the bone. Unfortunately, this type of fracture is associated with a poor prognosis. The Salter-Harris classification system provides a more comprehensive breakdown of the different types of fractures that can occur in children.
Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions
Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.
Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.
Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a 4-month history of myalgia and widespread bony tenderness. She reports increased fatigue and weakness when lifting heavy objects. Her medical history includes coeliac disease.
During the examination, tenderness is noted over the shoulder girdle and arms, but there is no associated joint stiffness. The patient has a waddling gait.
Blood tests are ordered and reveal the following results:
- Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1 - 2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8 - 1.4)
- ALP: 176 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for a patient presenting with bone pain, muscle tenderness, and a waddling gait due to proximal myopathy is osteomalacia. This condition is caused by a demineralization of bone, often due to a deficiency in vitamin D. Laboratory tests may reveal hypocalcemia, low vitamin D levels, normal or elevated phosphate levels, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Myositis, myotonic dystrophy, and osteoporosis are incorrect diagnoses as they do not present with the same symptoms or laboratory findings.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of fatigue, aches, constipation, and nausea. She reports increased thirst and waking at night to pass urine, and has been experiencing a low mood that has kept her from leaving the house frequently. The following investigations were performed:
- Hb 140 g/L (115 - 160)
- WBC 5.9 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Calcium 2.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- PTH 75 pg/mL (10 - 55)
- ALP 130 µmol/L (30 - 100)
- Phosphate 0.4 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Urea 5.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 68 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- 25-hydroxycholecalciferol 48 nmol/L (>50)
- eGFR 62 ml/min/1.73 m2
What is the most likely underlying cause of her presentation?Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Explanation:The diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is incorrect in this case. An eGFR below 90 can still be considered normal if it is above 60 and there are no abnormalities in the U&Es. The patient’s eGFR is 62 and their urea and creatinine levels are within normal range, indicating that they do not have CKD. In cases of CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism may occur, which would result in different blood test results. Since the kidneys are responsible for activating vitamin D, which is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines, low serum calcium levels would be expected in CKD. Additionally, due to kidney dysfunction, there would be inadequate excretion of phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels. This increase in phosphate levels would cause calcium to be deposited in the insoluble calcium phosphate salt, further lowering calcium levels. Therefore, the symptoms of hypercalcemia that the patient is experiencing would not be present in secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by CKD. In summary, hyperparathyroidism secondary to CKD would result in low calcium and high phosphate levels, rather than high calcium and low phosphate levels.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.
Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP complaining of painful knee and ankle joints. He reports feeling unwell, fatigued, and feverish after returning from a trip to Thailand three weeks ago, during which he experienced severe diarrhea. The doctor suspects reactive arthritis. What other physical indication during the examination may support this suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dactylitis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is linked to dactylitis as a clinical sign.
In the case of a man experiencing joint pain in his lower limbs after a gastrointestinal infection, reactive arthritis is a likely cause. The question is asking for the associated clinical sign, which is dactylitis. This condition is commonly caused by spondyloarthropathies like reactive and psoriatic arthritis. On the other hand, a Z-thumb deformity is related to rheumatoid arthritis, while leukonychia is caused by hypoalbuminemia. Clubbing, on the other hand, can be caused by various factors such as congenital heart defects and different types of cancer.
Understanding Dactylitis: Inflammation of Fingers and Toes
Dactylitis is a medical condition that refers to the inflammation of a digit, which can be a finger or a toe. This condition can be caused by various factors, including spondyloarthritis, which includes reactive and psoriatic arthritis. Other causes of dactylitis include sickle-cell disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis, although these are rare.
Dactylitis can cause swelling, pain, and stiffness in the affected digit, which can make it difficult to perform daily activities. Treatment for dactylitis depends on the underlying cause and may include medication, physical therapy, or surgery in severe cases. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most people with dactylitis can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of persistent stiffness and pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of her left hand. She reports that her symptoms are more severe in the morning and improve with activity.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is suggested by an asymmetrical presentation, as it typically involves inflammation of distal and proximal interphalangeal joints in an asymmetric manner. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis tends to affect symmetrical joints and may also have extra-articular manifestations such as atlantoaxial subluxation, rheumatoid nodules, and episcleritis. Osteoarthritis typically affects the distal interphalangeal joints and is characterized by pain and stiffness that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Gout, on the other hand, is characterized by acute attacks that commonly affect a single joint, such as the MTP joint, and can be triggered by consuming purine-rich foods or alcohol. Synovial fluid analysis can differentiate gout from pseudogout, which is characterized by calcium pyrophosphate deposition.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of lower back pain that has been ongoing for the past week. The pain has gradually worsened over the last few days, and he is now unable to change his posture due to the severity of the pain. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use and had visited his GP earlier in the month for shortness of breath and a low-grade fever. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 40ºC, needle track marks on his forearm, a systolic murmur in the tricuspid region, and severe restriction of movement in his back. A urine dip test reveals the presence of blood, but no other abnormalities are found. An MRI of the spine confirms a diagnosis of discitis. What other urgent investigations should be performed?
Your Answer: Echocardiography
Explanation:Patients who use intravenous drugs and have infective endocarditis may exhibit symptoms of discitis.
The patient in question displays signs of infective endocarditis, including a mild fever, a systolic murmur in the tricuspid region (likely tricuspid regurgitation), and blood in their urine. Although these symptoms may seem unrelated, they are consistent with endocarditis. Septic emboli from the heart can travel to various parts of the body, causing inflammation and damage to tissues such as the intervertebral disc space and renal parenchyma. This can result in back pain and hematuria. It is important to rule out this condition by obtaining images of the heart.
An MRI of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder would be an expensive way to diagnose kidney stones and would not provide any additional diagnostic benefit in this case. Surgical exploration is too invasive at this stage, and the issue lies with the heart rather than the kidneys. An X-ray of the kidneys would not be helpful in this situation.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman received a call from an out of hours GP who advised her to go to the emergency department due to abnormalities found on her blood tests during her annual well woman check-up. She has a medical history of systemic sclerosis and uses topical emollients on her hands. She denies any allergies, is an ex-smoker, and does not consume alcohol. Her blood results are as follows:
- Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
- Platelets 151 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 11.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 164 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 30 ml/min (>90)
Upon observation, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is high. In the right arm, it is 187/95 mmHg and in the left arm is 191/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for this patient?Your Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:When systemic sclerosis leads to kidney problems, hypertension and AKI are common symptoms. The preferred treatment for this is ACE inhibitors, with lisinopril being the appropriate choice. In severe cases of sclerodermic renal crisis, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia may also occur. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension, while bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also be used for this purpose. Doxazosin, on the other hand, is an α blocker used to treat hypertension.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 51-year-old male presents with painful colour changes of his hands precipitated by cold. He also reports difficulty swallowing and has noticed tightness of his skin especially on his face and his fingers.
What is the most appropriate test from the options below?Your Answer: Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of scleroderma, and a detection of anti-centromere antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of joint pain in her left hand and a 'sausage-like finger'. She reports her only medication is prescription coal tar shampoo.
She is tender over the left distal interphalangeal joints with mildly swollen fingers. Her left index finger is diffusely swollen.
Observations show a heart rate of 82 bpm, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, a temperature of 36.8ºC, and 98% oxygen saturation on room air.
She has an x-ray of her hand performed.
What would be the most likely findings on imaging?Your Answer: Periarticular erosions with bone resorption
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of swelling and pain in the distal interphalangeal joints and dactylitis suggest a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. This is further supported by her use of a prescription coal tar shampoo for psoriatic lesions on her scalp. Psoriatic joint disease can cause a distinct X-ray appearance known as a pencil-in-cup deformity, characterized by periarticular erosions and bone resorption.
In contrast, erosions with overhanging edges, also known as rat-bite erosions, are associated with gout and tophi, typically affecting the first metatarsal joint in the foot. Joint effusion may be present in the early stages of septic arthritis, which should be ruled out for any hot, painful swollen joint. However, the patient’s lack of systemic illness and unchanged swelling over time make septic arthritis less likely.
Osteoarthritis, a non-inflammatory degenerative arthritis that worsens with age, does not typically present with dactylitis and is characterized by X-ray features such as loss of joint space, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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Sophie is a 16-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department by her father after a fall. An X-ray of her left ankle shows a Weber A fracture. What is the most suitable course of action for treating this injury?
Your Answer: Remain weight bearing as tolerated in a CAM boot for 6 weeks
Explanation:Patients with minimally displaced and stable Weber A fractures may bear weight as tolerated while wearing a CAM boot. These fractures occur below the ankle syndesmosis and are considered stable, requiring immobilization in a CAM boot for six weeks. Pain relief is necessary but not the primary management for this injury. A below-knee cast is not required as the fracture is stable. Open reduction and external fixation are only necessary for unstable injuries such as Weber C fractures.
Ankle Fractures and their Classification
Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.
Management of Ankle Fractures
The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Correct
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An 80-year-old female visits her GP complaining of muscle weakness that has been gradually worsening for the past year. She is unable to stand or walk for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has a purple rash on her eyelids, red nodules on her knees and elbows, and painful cracked skin on her fingers. Which autoantibody is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Antinuclear (ANA)
Explanation:AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman comes to the ED complaining of instability and pain in her right hip. She reports that the pain extends to her knee and is exacerbated by weight-bearing, but she is still able to walk and bear weight. She underwent a total hip replacement 19 months ago for an intracapsular femoral neck fracture. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aseptic loosening of the hip replacement
Explanation:The most common reason for revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, which can cause pain in the hip or groin area that may radiate down to the knee. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is not a possible complication in this case as the patient has already undergone a total hip replacement. IT band syndrome is unlikely as the patient’s history does not suggest regular strenuous physical activity. Infection of the replacement is an acute complication that would not typically present 18 months after surgery. A periprosthetic fracture would result in reduced range of motion and inability to bear weight, which is not the case for this patient.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Correct
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A 75-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall at home. During the examination, it is observed that his left leg is externally-rotated and shortened. An X-ray confirms the presence of an intertrochanteric femoral fracture. This patient is typically mobile and able to perform all activities of daily living independently. What is the most suitable surgical approach for this patient?
Your Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Explanation:The optimal surgical approach for intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture is the use of dynamic hip screws. These screws are considered dynamic due to their ability to tighten as the bone heals. Hemiarthroplasty is not the preferred option for this type of fracture, as it is typically reserved for displaced intracapsular fractures in patients with significant comorbidities or immobility. Internal fixation is also not the preferred approach, as it is typically used for undisplaced intracapsular fractures in mobile patients without serious comorbidities. Intramedullary nails are not the preferred approach for intertrochanteric fractures, as they are typically used for subtrochanteric fractures.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with acute lower back pain of one week duration. The pain is localized to her lower back, rates 9/10 in severity, and has not improved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. She has a medical history significant for stage 3 chronic kidney disease, hypertension, osteoporosis, and hypercholesterolemia. The patient has a 30-pack-year smoking history and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide, amlodipine, alendronic acid, vitamin D supplements, calcium tablets, omeprazole, and atorvastatin. On physical examination, the patient has lumbar lordosis, decreased mobility, and spasm of the paravertebral muscles. Tenderness to palpation is noted at L4-L5. A previous DEXA scan taken 6 months ago shows a T-score of −3.0 in the lumbosacral spine and −3.2 in the left hip. What is the recommended first-line investigation?
Your Answer: X-ray spine
Explanation:X-ray of the spine is the first-line investigation for a suspected osteoporotic vertebral fracture, while CT spine, MRI spine, repeat DEXA scan, and skeletal survey are not indicated or necessary.
Understanding Osteoporotic Vertebral Fractures
Osteoporotic vertebral fractures are a common consequence of osteoporosis, a condition where bones gradually decrease in bone mineral density, leading to an increased risk of fragility fractures. These fractures often present with acute onset back pain, but patients can also be asymptomatic. Osteoporosis is more prevalent in females than males, with a male-to-female ratio of 1:6. Advancing age is a major risk factor for osteoporotic fractures, with women over 65 and men over 75 being at increased risk. Other risk factors include a previous history of fragility fractures, frequent or prolonged use of glucocorticoids, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, alternative causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, tobacco smoking, and high alcohol intake.
Patients with osteoporotic vertebral fractures may present with acute back pain, breathing difficulties, gastrointestinal problems, loss of height, kyphosis, and localised tenderness on palpation of spinous processes at the fracture site. X-ray of the spine is the first investigation ordered, which may show wedging of the vertebra due to compression of the bone. Other investigations such as CT spine and MRI spine may be used to visualise the extent/features of the fracture more clearly and differentiate osteoporotic fractures from those caused by another pathology.
To assess the likelihood of future fractures, risk factors are taken into account, and a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be considered. The FRAX tool or QFracture tool can be used to estimate the 10-year risk of a fracture. These tools require the clinician to input patient information into a form, which is then used by the programme to calculate the risk. Understanding osteoporotic vertebral fractures and their risk factors is crucial in preventing and managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of bilateral muscle weakness in her shoulders and hips. She reports difficulty getting out of chairs without assistance and experiences breathlessness and fatigue. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 130/75 mmHg. Proximal muscle strength is symmetrically 4/5, while distal strength is normal. No skin rashes or arthralgia are present. Laboratory results show Hb 116 g/L (115 - 160), WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Creatine kinase 1250 U/L (35 - 250), Urea 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 115 µmol/L (55 - 120), and ESR 60 mm/hr (<40). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these features?
Your Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is polymyositis, as she presents with true bilateral proximal muscle weakness, shortness of breath, and fatigue, along with elevated ESR and CK levels indicating muscle inflammation and injury. Dermatomyositis is less likely as no skin changes are mentioned. Motor neurone disease is also unlikely as it does not cause muscle tissue inflammation or elevated CK levels. Polymyalgia rheumatica is also unlikely as it does not present with true muscle weakness and is not associated with elevated CK levels.
Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness
Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.
One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.
To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.
The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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An 83-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for a month. She mentions having difficulty standing up after sitting down. She also reports noticing a red rash on her chest, but denies any itching. Her medical history is unremarkable except for hypertension that is well-controlled.
During the physical examination, the doctor observes dry hands with linear cracks and violaceous papules on both knuckles. The patient also has a distinct purple rash around each eyelid. What is the most specific antibody for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti-Jo-1 antibody
Explanation:The most specific autoantibody associated with dermatomyositis is anti-Jo-1. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms, which include proximal myopathy, Gottron’s papules, mechanic’s hands, and a heliotrope rash. Anti-Ro antibody, anti-Smith antibody, and antinuclear antibody are not specific to dermatomyositis and are associated with other rheumatological conditions.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain that has been bothering him for the past 10 months. The pain worsens with activity and walking, causing bilateral pain and weakness in his calves. However, sitting or leaning forward provides relief. Despite a thorough examination, no neurological findings are present. The patient has no significant medical history, smokes socially, and drinks a glass of wine with dinner each night. He works as a builder and is worried that his back pain will affect his ability to work. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg over the past 6 months. He also reports mild weakness in the affected leg during any activity. The pain travels down the back of his left leg and worsens when walking, causing him to stop and rest frequently. However, the pain improves when he sits or crouches down. The patient has no history of smoking or cardiovascular issues and has a body mass index of 19.0 kg/m2. There are no abnormalities found during back and neurological examinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mechanical back pain
Correct Answer: Lumbar canal spinal stenosis
Explanation:When a patient complains of claudication, spinal stenosis should be considered as a possible cause.
If the patient experiences leg pain on one side that improves with rest, certain factors in their medical history may indicate spinal stenosis rather than peripheral arterial disease. These factors include pain relief when sitting or crouching, leg weakness, no history of smoking, and no cardiovascular issues. Ankylosing spondylitis, which primarily causes back pain, is more common in younger patients and is unlikely to cause leg pain. Conversion disorder, a psychiatric condition that presents with unexplained musculoskeletal symptoms, is typically diagnosed after ruling out physical causes, but the patient’s history suggests spinal stenosis rather than a psychiatric cause. While peripheral arterial disease is a possible differential diagnosis, the absence of cardiac risk factors and the pain-relieving factors suggest spinal stenosis. If the patient experiences claudication pain after walking 100 meters or more, peripheral arterial disease may be more likely.
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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