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  • Question 1 - What substance is considered a monoamine oxidase-A (MAOI) inhibitor? ...

    Correct

    • What substance is considered a monoamine oxidase-A (MAOI) inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      Phenelzine is the most commonly prescribed MAOI in the UK and is considered the safest among the MAOIs. Tranylcypromine and isocarboxazid are the other MAOIs that are licensed for use. Perphenazine and pericyazine are typical antipsychotics, while promazine is less effective when taken orally and is related to chlorpromazine. Promethazine, also known as Phenergan, is a sedating antihistamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with no significant psychiatric history develops an unexpected episode of mania...

    Correct

    • A patient with no significant psychiatric history develops an unexpected episode of mania at the age of 50. When you are admitting her it comes to your attention that she has recently been started on a number of new medications. Which of the following would be most likely to precipitate an episode of mania?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs

      There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

      Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?

      Your Answer: In Zero order reactions the half-life decreases as the concentration falls

      Explanation:

      In contrast to first order reactions, drugs that exhibit zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life, as the rate of drug elimination remains constant regardless of the drug concentration in the plasma. The relationship between time and plasma concentration in zero order kinetics is linear, whereas in first order reactions, the half-life remains constant.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What combination of substances is included in Suboxone? ...

    Correct

    • What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?

      Your Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is an example of a second generation H1 antihistamine? ...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a second generation H1 antihistamine?

      Your Answer: Cetirizine

      Explanation:

      The second generation of H1 antihistamines exhibit limited ability to cross the blood-brain barrier, leading to their non-sedating properties. Furthermore, they possess greater receptor specificity and do not produce significant anticholinergic effects. These characteristics make them a more desirable option for managing allergic conditions, as they minimize the risk of adverse effects.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc...

    Correct

    • An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc interval on a routine ECG. What antipsychotic medication is thought to have the least impact on the QTc interval and could be a viable substitute?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has...

    Correct

    • A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has deteriorated since commencing a new medication. What factor would you suspect to be the most likely cause of exacerbating her psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Medications that can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms include:
      – Lithium
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Beta blockers
      – Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the lowest daily amount of sertraline that is effective for treating...

    Correct

    • What is the lowest daily amount of sertraline that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer: 50 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?...

    Correct

    • Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?

      Your Answer: 2D6

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a known outcome of using lithium for an extended period of...

    Correct

    • What is a known outcome of using lithium for an extended period of time?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What factor is most likely to induce sedation and potentially impair a person's...

    Correct

    • What factor is most likely to induce sedation and potentially impair a person's driving ability?

      Your Answer: Chlorpheniramine

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to avoid using first generation H1 antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine in individuals who drive of operate heavy machinery due to their ability to easily penetrate the blood brain barrier and cause sedation.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: It worsens when a patient is distracted

      Explanation:

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is most likely to result from use of carbamazepine?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to result from use of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Agranulocytosis

      Correct Answer: Leucopenia

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine use can result in leucopenia, which is a reduction in white blood cell count, affecting 1 in 10 individuals. Although other side effects can occur with carbamazepine, they are rare of very rare. The decrease in WBC is believed to be due to the inhibition of colony-stimulating factor in the bone marrow. However, the co-administration of lithium, which stimulates colony-stimulating factor, may potentially reverse the effects of carbamazepine (Daughton, 2006).

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate? ...

    Correct

    • What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The use of valproate can lead to pancreatitis, which is a known and potentially fatal complication.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision,...

    Correct

    • Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Diphenhydramine

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention are commonly observed with the use of first generation H1 antihistamines like diphenhydramine.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium for his bipolar disorder for more than two decades without any notable adverse effects.
      His eGFR is 34 mL/min, and his serum creatinine level is slightly above the normal range.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can cause polyuria and dilutional hyponatremia, but it does not typically lead to renal impairment. It is important to differentiate this condition from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can develop in a significant percentage of patients on long-term lithium therapy and may present with nocturia as an early sign. While elevated calcium levels may occur in some patients on lithium, hyperparathyroidism is not a common clinical symptom. Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a rare complication of lithium therapy. The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is not typically associated with polyuria of renal impairment and is not commonly linked to lithium therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which option is incorrectly categorized? ...

    Correct

    • Which option is incorrectly categorized?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine - Benzoxazole

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine belongs to the thienobenzodiazepine class.

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Taste disturbance is known as Dysgeusia in medical terminology and can be caused by various medications. Lithium is a frequently encountered culprit, but other drugs such as certain antidepressants, benzodiazepines, z-drugs, and opiates can also lead to this condition. Additionally, any medication that causes dry mouth may result in taste disturbance. This information is sourced from D Kaufman’s book, Clinical neurology for psychiatrists, published in 2007 on page 38.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A client with schizoaffective disorder who takes olanzapine is concerned about the weight...

    Correct

    • A client with schizoaffective disorder who takes olanzapine is concerned about the weight they have gained since beginning treatment. Is there evidence to suggest that switching to a different medication can help reduce weight?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old male with a history of depression is interested in trying agomelatine...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of depression is interested in trying agomelatine as a potential treatment. Can you explain the mechanism of action of agomelatine?

      Your Answer: MT1 and MT2 receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine acts as a melatonergic agonist at MT1 and MT2 receptors and also as a 5-HT2C antagonist, indirectly increasing norepinephrine and dopamine levels to alleviate depression. Moclobemide, an MAO-A inhibitor, boosts serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine levels in the brain, resulting in antidepressant effects. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, elevates serotonin levels, while venlafaxine, a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, enhances the concentration of both chemicals in the brain, leading to antidepressant benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the most effective approach to managing narcolepsy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective approach to managing narcolepsy?

      Your Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 22 - What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it related to the time between drug absorption and the onset of a specific pharmacologic effect?

      Your Answer: Dissolution time

      Correct Answer: First pass effect

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 23 - What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      By week 12 of embryonic development, the lip and palate region is usually completely developed. Cleft lip and palate are primarily caused by the use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids as medications.

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 24 - What is the mechanism of action of memantine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Although cholinergic agents have been tested in Alzheimer’s disease, they have shown limited effectiveness. On the other hand, memantine, a N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, works by reducing the impact of glutamate mediated toxicity and has shown promise in treating the disease. Additionally, anti-amyloid strategies are currently being developed and, if successful, could directly target the disease process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the...

    Correct

    • Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the arrhythmogenic potential of tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - What medications have the potential to cause elevated levels of lithium in the...

    Correct

    • What medications have the potential to cause elevated levels of lithium in the body?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 27 - Which drugs have been tested as a treatment for Alzheimer's dementia by targeting...

    Correct

    • Which drugs have been tested as a treatment for Alzheimer's dementia by targeting amyloid deposition and plaque formation to prevent cognitive decline?

      Your Answer: Solanezumab

      Explanation:

      Solanezumab is a type of humanised monoclonal antibody that can bind to the central region of β-amyloid, which is believed to prevent the formation of plaques. However, current research has not yet determined whether this drug is effective in treating Alzheimer’s dementia.

      Carbimazole is a medication that is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, a condition in which the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone.

      Levomilnacipran is a newly approved drug by the FDA that is used to treat major depressive disorder.

      Pantoprazole is a type of proton pump inhibitor that is used to treat acid reflux disease, a condition in which stomach acid flows back into the esophagus.

      Zubsolv is a recently approved drug by the FDA that is used for the maintenance treatment of opioid dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - What substance is eliminated from the body through urine without undergoing any chemical...

    Correct

    • What substance is eliminated from the body through urine without undergoing any chemical changes?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which medication should be avoided by patients who are taking phenelzine? ...

    Correct

    • Which medication should be avoided by patients who are taking phenelzine?

      Your Answer: Broad bean pods

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting information regarding whether people should avoid only the pods of broad beans of both the beans and their pods.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 30 - What is a true statement about the symptoms that occur when discontinuing SSRI...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the symptoms that occur when discontinuing SSRI medication?

      Your Answer: They are more common with antidepressants with shorter half-lives

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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