00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is the definition of Nissl bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Nissl bodies?

      Your Answer: Breakdown products of cell metabolism

      Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

      Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.

      The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 58 -
      Inferior vena cava 52 -
      Right atrium (mean) 56 10
      Right ventricle 55 105/9
      Pulmonary artery - 16/8
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left atrium 97 -
      Left ventricle 84 108/10
      Aorta 74 110/80

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Fallot’s Tetralogy

      Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      108.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?

      Your Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with his mother complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with his mother complaining of a painful penile erection that has lasted for 4 hours. The mother reports that the boy has a history of sickle cell disease. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Perform arterial blood gas analysis

      Correct Answer: Perform cavernosal blood gas analysis

      Explanation:

      Cavernosal blood gas analysis is a valuable diagnostic tool for priapism, a condition characterized by a prolonged penile erection unrelated to sexual stimulation. Priapism typically affects individuals aged 5-10 years or 20-50 years. Cavernosal blood gas analysis is crucial in distinguishing between ischaemic and non-ischaemic priapism, which would inform subsequent treatment decisions.

      Priapism is a medical emergency and should be treated as such unless proven otherwise. Therefore, involving child protection services would be inappropriate in the absence of other indications of sexual abuse. Arterial blood gas analysis and urinalysis are not necessary and would be unsuitable in this case.

      Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent permanent tissue damage. Therefore, certain diagnostic tests must be performed, and treatment cannot be delayed. This is a critical learning point for an FY1, as priapism is prevalent in some ethnic groups and can lead to severe complications.

      Understanding Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by a persistent penile erection that lasts longer than four hours and is not associated with sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic, each with a different pathophysiology. Ischaemic priapism is caused by impaired vasorelaxation, resulting in reduced vascular outflow and trapping of de-oxygenated blood within the corpus cavernosa. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is due to high arterial inflow, often caused by fistula formation due to congenital or traumatic mechanisms.

      Priapism can affect individuals of all ages, with a bimodal distribution of age at presentation, with peaks between 5-10 years and 20-50 years of age. The incidence of priapism has been estimated at up to 5.34 per 100,000 patient-years. There are various causes of priapism, including idiopathic, sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathies, erectile dysfunction medication, trauma, and drug use (both prescribed and recreational).

      Patients with priapism typically present acutely with a persistent erection lasting over four hours and pain localized to the penis. A history of haemoglobinopathy or medication use may also be present. Cavernosal blood gas analysis and Doppler or duplex ultrasonography can be used to differentiate between ischaemic and non-ischaemic priapism and assess blood flow within the penis. Treatment for ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency and includes aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, injection of a saline flush, and intracavernosal injection of a vasoconstrictive agent. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is not a medical emergency and is usually observed as a first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. He holds a senior trading job in an investment bank and has a history of recurrent admissions following cocaine intoxication. They are worried because he recently sent a memo to everyone on the trading floor suggesting that he is now the lead, he has the mental capacity to beat anyone to a higher profit and he should be chairman of the group. In fact, he has been performing poorly and has missed recent performance targets.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Manic episode of bipolar disorder

      Correct Answer: Cocaine-induced delusional disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Psychological Effects of Cocaine Use

      Cocaine use can lead to a range of psychological and psychiatric problems, including delusional disorder. This disorder is characterized by grandiose ideas concerning one’s social standing or intellectual ability, which are far in excess of reality. Cocaine-induced hallucinations are also common, particularly of the auditory or tactile variety.

      While some may mistake these symptoms for schizophrenia or a manic episode of bipolar disorder, it is important to consider the individual’s history of cocaine use. Cocaine intoxication can cause anxiety, agitation, euphoria, enlarged pupils, and palpitations, while severe intoxication can lead to delirium, hyperactivity, hyperthermia, and psychosis. Cocaine withdrawal, on the other hand, can cause fatigue, agitation, vivid and unpleasant dreams, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation.

      Overall, it is crucial to understand the potential psychological effects of cocaine use and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old male patient complains of a painless lump in his right testicle....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male patient complains of a painless lump in his right testicle. What is the strongest association of testicular cancer?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Men with infertility have a threefold increased risk of developing testicular cancer.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between...

    Incorrect

    • A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between primary and secondary prevention strategies to reduce disease burden. As part of your explanation, you decide to use an example of a secondary prevention measure to illustrate your description.
      Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention measure?

      Your Answer: Offering smoking cessation services

      Correct Answer: Screening for breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Examples of Primary and Secondary Prevention Measures

      Primary and secondary prevention measures are important in maintaining good health and preventing diseases. Primary prevention measures aim to prevent the onset of a disease before it even starts, while secondary prevention measures aim to detect and treat a disease early to prevent its progression. Here are some examples of primary and secondary prevention measures:

      Introducing alcohol drinking guideline limits is a primary prevention measure that aims to reduce the health effects of excess alcohol consumption. This measure can help prevent alcohol-related diseases such as liver cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and certain types of cancer.

      Annual influenzae vaccination is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent cases of influenzae in otherwise healthy individuals. This measure can help reduce the spread of the flu virus and prevent complications such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening.

      Providing free condoms in general practice is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent sexually transmitted diseases in otherwise healthy volunteers. This measure can help reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, and HIV.

      Offering smoking cessation services is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent lung cancer. This measure can help individuals quit smoking and reduce their risk of developing lung cancer, as well as other smoking-related diseases such as heart disease and stroke.

      Breast cancer screening is a secondary prevention measure that aims to detect early breast cancer so that it can be treated early and lead to improved patient outcomes. This measure involves regular mammograms and clinical breast exams for women over a certain age or with certain risk factors. Early detection can help prevent the spread of breast cancer and increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the origin of Ewing's tumor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the origin of Ewing's tumor?

      Your Answer: None of these options

      Correct Answer: Mesenchymal cells

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s Tumour: A Younger Age Onset and Destructive Nature

      Ewing’s tumour is a type of bone cancer that typically occurs in individuals between the ages of 5 and 30 years old. Patients with this condition often experience fever and pain, and may have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The tumour usually affects a long bone, particularly the diaphysis, and can be found in the axial skeleton, such as the pelvis, in 40% of cases. The tumour is primarily destructive and ill-defined, eroding the cortex of the bone. Its cellular origin is not well understood, but is believed to come from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the medulla of the bone.

      One of the characteristic features of Ewing’s tumour is an early periosteal reaction, which can be seen as a series of lamellated periosteal reactions with an onion skin appearance. This reaction occurs due to the elevation of the periosteum, which gives rise to the Codman’s triangle appearance. In cases where the tumour is large, the site of origin can be inferred from the centre of the radius of the mass.

      Overall, Ewing’s tumour is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Its destructive nature and younger age onset make it a particularly challenging form of bone cancer to manage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of postmenopausal bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of postmenopausal bleeding that has been going on for a month. She takes aspirin 75 mg once daily as her only medication. An ultrasound scan of the uterus reveals an endometrial lining thickness of 4.1 mm. Although an endometrial pipelle biopsy was performed, it was inconclusive. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy with biopsy

      Explanation:

      Investigation is necessary for any postmenopausal bleeding. The first step is to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound scan to examine the thickness of the endometrium. To diagnose endometrial cancer, a Pipelle biopsy is used to sample the endometrium, which is effective in most cases. Hysteroscopy with directed sampling (dilation and curettage) can be used to detect lesions or when Pipelle has been inconclusive. CT scan is not required as a pre-operative imaging test nor is it used to diagnose endometrial cancer.
      Reference: Colombo N, Preti E, Landoni F, Carinelli S, Colombo A, et al. Endometrial cancer: ESMO clinical practice guidelines for diagnosis, treatment and follow-up. Ann Oncol. 2013; 24 (6): vi33-vi38.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in hospital for the past year. He was diagnosed with depression at the age of 23 and has been on antidepressants since. He has had multiple self-harm and suicide attempts in the past. For the past year, he has been receiving treatment in hospital and has been making some progress with regard to his mental health. He is not happy to be in hospital, but the doctors thought that it was in his best interests to keep him in hospital for treatment. He has been under a Section which allowed him to be kept in hospital for six months. At the end of the first six months, the doctors applied for a second time for him to be kept for another six months, as they feel he is not yet fit for discharge.
      For how long can the relevant Section be renewed for this patient for the third time?

      Your Answer: Six months

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Time Limits of Mental Health Detention in the UK

      In the UK, mental health detention is governed by specific time limits depending on the type of detention and the purpose of the detention. Here are some of the key time limits to be aware of:

      – Section 2: This is the Section used for assessment, and a patient can be kept in hospital for a maximum of 28 days under this Section. It cannot be extended.
      – Section 3: This is the Section used for treatment, and a patient can be detained for up to six months initially. The Section can be renewed for another six months, and then for one year at a time. Treatment without consent can be given for the first three months, and then only with the approval of an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ for the next three months.
      – Two years: While a patient can be kept in hospital for up to two years for treatment, Section 3 cannot be renewed for two years at a time. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough.
      – Six months: This is the time for which an initial Section 3 can be applied for and the time for which it can be renewed for a second time. For a third time and onwards, Section 3 can be renewed for one year each time, but the patient can be discharged earlier if doctors think it is not necessary for the patient to be under Section anymore.

      Understanding these time limits is important for both patients and healthcare professionals involved in mental health detention in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Passmed