-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer: Predominantly work through effects on β-adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (α1, α2, β1, β2, β3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 66-year-old man with a haemorrhagic stroke is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has been taking warfarin for a long time because of atrial fibrillation. His INR at the time of admission was 9.1. Which of the following treatment options is the most effective in managing his condition?
Your Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.
For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.
The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.
To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.
Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.
Your Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
Explanation:The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.
The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.
These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.
Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension. Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?
Your Answer: 7
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas. Which of its property is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Critical temperature
Explanation:The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C
The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.
The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.
There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship). Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?
Your Answer: Phenyl and ethyl groups at C5
Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 45-year old male who was involved in a road traffic accident has had to receive a large blood transfusion of whole blood which is two weeks old. Which of these best describes the oxygen carrying capacity of this blood?
Your Answer: It will more readily release oxygen in metabolically active tissues than fresh blood
Correct Answer: It will have an increased affinity for oxygen
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape. The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance. End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes). Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa. Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?
Your Answer: Replace the soda lime
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial€“end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects. The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?
Your Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted
Explanation:Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.
1st Phase:
Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.
Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.
N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.
Phase II:
Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.
Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.
As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck. What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: Trapezius muscle
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment. As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs). Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.
Your Answer: 1400 mL/minute
Explanation:Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.
It is calculated mathematically by:
VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute
where,
1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on α1, α2, β1, and β2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on α adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on β adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment. Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?
Your Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles
Explanation:Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.
Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.
Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.
Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage.
Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams.
The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury.
Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions.
Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?
Your Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)
Explanation:The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).
Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer: Teres minor
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?
Your Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.
The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.
Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.
The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.
Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?
Your Answer: The atrioventricular node
Correct Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation:The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.
The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern . Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious. Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit. Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer: Administer intravenous magnesium 15 mg/kg
Correct Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg
Explanation:Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.
Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients
Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.
In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.
Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer: They act on N-type calcium channels
Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer: No change in acid base status
Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer: Isoflurane 1 MAC
Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
From the following statements, which is true of humidification?
Your Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity
Explanation:Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.
Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.
Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.
The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?
Your Answer: Does not include the middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together
Explanation:There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.
Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it. What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?
Your Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured. The following is a description of the clinical examination: Anxious, Capillary refill time of 3 seconds, Cool peripheries, Pulse 120 beats per minute, Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg, Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?
Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of more than 50%
Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:
Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?
Your Answer: Complexed in the follicular cell
Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin
Explanation:The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.
The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.
Iodide ions (Iˆ’) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.
Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh. The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?
Your Answer: Arteriolar constriction
Correct Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.
Your Answer: T1
Correct Answer: C7
Explanation:The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.
Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located. What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: Internal jugular vein
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)