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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old smoker presents to the Gynaecology clinic following a general practitioner’s referral....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old smoker presents to the Gynaecology clinic following a general practitioner’s referral. Her presenting complaint is long-standing vulval irritation and itching. She has a past medical history of lichen sclerosus. On examination, there is an obvious growth in the vulval area. A biopsy is taken and sent for pathological analysis.
      What is the most common cause of vulval carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Vulval Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vulval cancer is a rare type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. There are different types of vulval cancer, each with its own set of symptoms, risk factors, and treatment options. Here are some of the most common types of vulval cancer:

      Squamous cell carcinoma: This is the most common type of vulval cancer, accounting for about 85% of cases. It usually affects women over 60 who smoke or have a weakened immune system. Symptoms include vulval irritation or itching, and as the disease progresses, pain and discharge. Squamous cell carcinoma can be cured if caught early, and treatment usually involves surgical excision.

      Basal cell carcinoma: This type of vulval cancer is rare and usually occurs in sun-exposed areas of the skin. It is often treated with surgery.

      Sarcoma: Sarcoma is a rare type of vulval cancer that can occur at any age, including childhood. Treatment usually involves surgery and radiation therapy.

      Bartholin’s gland carcinoma: This is a rare cause of vulval cancer that affects the Bartholin glands, which are two small mucous-producing glands on either side of the vaginal opening. Risk factors include HPV infection and Paget’s disease of the vulva. It is often diagnosed late, as it is often confused with Bartholin gland cyst, which is a benign condition.

      Malignant melanoma: This is a rare type of vulval cancer that accounts for about 5% of cases. Symptoms include itching, bleeding, and an irregular border. Treatment usually involves surgery and chemotherapy.

      If you experience any symptoms of vulval cancer, such as itching, pain, or bleeding, it is important to see a doctor as soon as possible. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve your chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of painful and stiff...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of painful and stiff joints. The stiffness is more pronounced in the mornings and lasts for over an hour, but improves as the day progresses. The patient reports feeling fatigued but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, synovitis is observed in two interphalangeal joints of the left hand, left wrist, and a single distal interphalangeal joint in the right foot. The patient is referred to a rheumatologist who diagnoses psoriatic arthritis. What is the most distinguishing feature between psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Asymmetrical joint pains

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis patients may experience a symmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis. Fatigue is a common symptom in inflammatory arthritides, including psoriatic arthritis, but it is not specific to this condition. Joint pain caused by mechanical factors like osteoarthritis and fibromyalgia can also lead to fatigue. Prolonged morning stiffness is a sign of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic arthritis or rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also occur in other inflammatory arthritides. In contrast, morning stiffness in osteoarthritis is usually shorter in duration, lasting less than an hour. Improvement in stiffness with use is a distinguishing feature of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic and rheumatoid arthritis, while physical activity in osteoarthritis tends to worsen symptoms.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Fourth heart sound

      Explanation:

      Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart

      Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:

      Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.

      Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.

      Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.

      Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.

      Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment...

    Correct

    • You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
      What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.

      The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.

      It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.

      While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’ chest pain radiating down the left arm. He is profusely sweating and looks ‘grey’. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and 3-mm ST elevation in V3–V6.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Give the patient aspirin, ticagrelor and low-molecular-weight heparin, followed by a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)

      When a patient presents with a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial. The gold standard treatment for a STEMI is a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), which should be performed as soon as possible. In the absence of contraindications, all patients should receive aspirin, ticagrelor, and low-molecular-weight heparin before undergoing PCI.

      Delaying PCI by treating the pain with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), aspirin, and oxygen, and reviewing the patient in 15 minutes is not recommended. Similarly, giving the patient aspirin, ticagrelor, and low molecular weight heparin without performing PCI is incomplete management.

      Thrombolysis therapy can be performed on patients without access to primary PCI. However, if primary PCI is available, it is the preferred treatment option.

      It is important to note that waiting for cardiac enzymes is not recommended as it would only result in a delay in definitive management. Early and appropriate treatment is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with STEMI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman has been living with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been living with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and has been under your care for the past nine years. During this time, her HbA1c levels have fluctuated between 64 mmol/mol and 75 mmol/mol (20-42).
      Today, her blood pressure reads 130/84 mmHg. She has also noticed that her blood glucose levels at home have been fluctuating more than usual over the past three months. Additionally, she reports experiencing nausea after eating and requiring less food than usual to feel full.
      Upon conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:
      - Urea: 8.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 112 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Sodium: 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (20-28)
      - HbA1c: 42 mmol/mol (20-42)
      - Urinalysis: Protein+
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Delayed gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy and Gastric Emptying

      People with a long history of diabetes may experience nausea after eating, along with a feeling of fullness and reduced appetite. These symptoms suggest reduced gastric emptying, which is often associated with autonomic neuropathy. Other symptoms that may be present include postural hypotension, gustatory sweating, diarrhea, or changes in bowel habits. To confirm the diagnosis, a barium swallow and meal may be necessary. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention to manage the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During the examination, the PCP notices a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid assessment. The patient displays signs of fatigue and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, and there is paleness in the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrical without skin alterations, moves upward when swallowing, and has a nodular consistency.
      What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism

      When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are the surgical F1 on call and are bleeped to go and...

    Incorrect

    • You are the surgical F1 on call and are bleeped to go and review Mrs. Smith, a 64-year-old who underwent a right sided total hip replacement 6 hours previously. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus but is otherwise healthy. The nursing staff are concerned as her catheter output has steadily declined and has been 40ml over the last two hours. She has also been drowsy since returning to the ward. The urine is very concentrated but is draining slowly.

      Examination reveals: heart rate 131/min, blood pressure 92/71 mmHg, temperature 36.8C, BM 8.7 and a central cap refill of 2/3 seconds. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender and you see no obvious signs of acute bleeding. She had a spinal anaesthetic during the procedure and is written up for PRN oramorph (5mg 2-4 Hourly). A 1 L bag of Hartmann's is running over 8 hours. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Flush the catheter

      Correct Answer: 500ml 0.9% normal saline fluid challenge

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms may be due to hypovolemia, which could be caused by intra-operative blood loss or dehydration. Normal saline is a more appropriate choice than dextrose as it provides better intra-vascular filling. The catheter seems to be functioning properly, and there is no indication of bladder distension, which rules out a blocked catheter. Although opiates can cause urinary retention, it is unlikely to be the cause in this case since there is no bladder distension and a catheter is already in place. While checking renal function through blood tests is important, it does not provide immediate treatment for the problem. A fluid challenge is likely to be a quicker way to determine if hypovolemia is the cause. Other factors to consider with low blood pressure or tachycardia include sepsis or the effects of anesthesia.

      Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management

      Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.

      Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.

      The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.

      In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In which tissue is glycolysis the primary direct means of generating ATP? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which tissue is glycolysis the primary direct means of generating ATP?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Erythrocytes

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Glycolysis in Erythrocytes

      Mature erythrocytes lack mitochondria, which means that they can only produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through anaerobic glycolysis. This makes them particularly vulnerable to deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes, such as pyruvate kinase deficiency, which affects 1 in 20,000 people and can cause varying degrees of haemolytic anaemia. The lack of pyruvate kinase directly impairs ATP production, as it is responsible for producing 2 ATP molecules from each glucose. Additionally, the build-up of intermediaries like 2,3 DPG can cause feedback inhibition of earlier stages of glycolysis, further impairing ATP production.

      In contrast, other tissues rely on oxidative phosphorylation to generate the majority of their ATP under normal, aerobic conditions. The importance of glycolysis in erythrocytes highlights the unique metabolic needs of these cells and the consequences of deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Passmed