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Question 1
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP due to hip discomfort. He reports that it has been gradually worsening for the past three months. The pain is constant throughout the day and night, but it is most severe when he puts weight on it. He denies experiencing any morning stiffness. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. The patient's medical history includes active Crohn's disease, which is being treated with corticosteroids. During the examination, there is tenderness when palpating the anterior groin area, but the range of passive motion is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Avascular necrosis of the hip
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is avascular necrosis of the hip, which is a significant risk for those who use steroids long-term. The patient has been experiencing worsening hip pain over a few months, which is exacerbated by use and does not have morning stiffness. The location of the pain in the anterior groin region is characteristic of avascular necrosis of the hip. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome and iliotibial band syndrome are unlikely diagnoses as they present with pain in different locations and have different exacerbating factors.
Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip
Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.
Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.
MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who presents for a follow-up of her left wrist in fracture clinic 3-weeks after a fall on an outstretched hand. Her X-ray at the time of injury was unremarkable but her wrist was immobilised in a Futuro splint as she was tender in the anatomical snuffbox. Subsequent imaging today shows a fracture of the proximal scaphoid pole.
What is the recommended definitive treatment for this?Your Answer: Surgical fixation
Explanation:Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal scaphoid pole fractures, including Colin’s injury. Referral to physiotherapy would not be sufficient for managing this type of fracture, as the risk of avascular necrosis is high. Removing the Futuro splint without further intervention would also be inappropriate, as imaging has shown that the fracture has not yet healed. However, if the fracture were an undisplaced scaphoid fracture not involving the proximal pole, immobilization of the wrist in a Futuro splint or below-elbow cast for an additional 6 weeks would be appropriate.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 60-year-old gardener comes to the clinic with rough red papules on his knuckles. The rash has been developing gradually over the past few weeks, and he is unsure of the cause. He reports that the rash is both itchy and painful. Additionally, he has been experiencing difficulty with heavy lifting and climbing stairs. What is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is characterized by roughened red papules, known as Gottron’s papules, mainly over the knuckles. Psoriasis typically presents with scaly plaques on extensor surfaces and may be accompanied by arthritis. Eczema primarily affects the face and trunk of infants and the flexor surfaces of older children, but it is not associated with muscle weakness. Skin involvement is not a common feature of polymyalgia rheumatica.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old male comes to the emergency department (ED) after twisting his ankle while playing soccer. Upon arrival at the ED, he is unable to take more than two steps and experiences bony tenderness at the lateral malleolus. An x-ray is conducted, revealing an undisplaced fracture of the fibula, located just distal to the syndesmosis.
What is the appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Analgesia and encourage to weight-bear as tolerated with a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot
Explanation:Ankle Fractures and their Classification
Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.
Management of Ankle Fractures
The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain that worsens with walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange physiotherapy
Correct Answer: Refer for MRI
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis of spinal stenosis and rule out other potential causes like metastatic disease, an MRI is necessary for this presentation. The lower back pain that worsens with walking is a typical symptom of spinal stenosis.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man who suffered from distal radial fracture eight weeks ago visits his GP complaining of numbness in the lateral three and a half digits and atrophy of the thenar muscles. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve injury
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Phalen’s test is utilized for evaluating carpal tunnel syndrome by holding the patient’s wrist in maximum flexion (reverse prayer sign) for 30-60 seconds. A positive result is indicated by numbness in the median nerve distribution.
This scenario is typical of carpal tunnel syndrome, which affects the thenar muscles and provides sensory innervation to the lateral three and a half digits. The compression of the median nerve during Phalen’s test leads to the aforementioned presentation.
In contrast, cubital tunnel syndrome results from ulnar nerve compression and causes hypothenar muscle wasting and numbness in the medial one and a half digits. Ulnar nerve injury leads to loss of sensation in the medial one and a half digit, while radial nerve palsy typically presents with wrist drop and loss of sensation in the first dorsal web-space.
Finally, radial ganglion is characterized by a mass near the base of the thumb, usually above the wrist.
Nerve Signs for Assessing Ulnar Nerve Palsy and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Nerve signs are important diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Two commonly used nerve signs are Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test. Froment’s sign is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy by testing the function of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is asked to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger, which is then pulled away. If the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it indicates ulnar nerve palsy.
Phalen’s test is used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome and is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign. The patient’s wrist is held in maximum flexion, and the test is positive if there is numbness in the median nerve distribution. Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome by tapping the median nerve at the wrist. The test is positive if there is tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.
In summary, nerve signs are useful diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test are two commonly used nerve signs that can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and sharp pain on the right side of her chest that worsens during inspiration. She also reports experiencing occasional joint pain in her hands for the past four months. During the physical examination, mild erythema is observed over her cheeks. What is the most sensitive investigation for this condition?
Your Answer: c-ANCA
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:Raised titre levels of Antistreptolysin O may indicate recent streptococcal infection or rheumatic fever.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not related to carpal tunnel syndrome?
Your Answer: Compression of the median nerve
Correct Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache on the right side of his head. The pain is concentrated in his right temple and worsens when he moves his jaw. He reports no changes in vision or focal neurological symptoms. The patient has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica. A temporal artery biopsy is scheduled to confirm the diagnosis. What is the next best course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Immediate oral dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Immediate oral prednisolone
Explanation:When temporal arthritis is suspected, glucocorticoids should be administered immediately without waiting for a temporal artery biopsy. This condition, also known as giant cell arthritis, typically presents with a localized headache in the temporal region and jaw claudication. It is strongly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. Prompt treatment is essential as temporal arthritis is a medical emergency that can lead to serious complications. Oral prednisolone is the recommended treatment in the absence of vision changes. Analgesia alone is not sufficient, and waiting for biopsy results can cause unnecessary delays in treatment. IV methylprednisolone is only indicated if there are changes in vision. Oral dexamethasone is not recommended as there is limited evidence on its efficacy for giant cell arthritis. Therefore, prednisolone is the preferred first-line treatment.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a fall resulting in a fracture of his distal 1/3 right femur. The radiologist noted v-shaped osteolytic lesions on his femur. Due to his age and the stability of the fracture, conservative management is chosen. His blood test results are as follows: haemoglobin 142 g/L (135-180), calcium 2.6 mmol/L (2.2 - 2.6), phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.74 - 1.4), alkaline phosphatase 418 u/L (30 - 100), and parathyroid hormone 52 pg/mL (10-55). The patient has a medical history of chronic kidney disease and diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myeloma
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient’s condition is Paget’s disease of the bone, which commonly affects the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. This is evidenced by the patient’s distal 2/3 femur fracture with osteolytic lesions and elevated ALP levels. Myeloma, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis are incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She has been experiencing bilateral headaches, neck and shoulder stiffness, and pain for the past two weeks, which is most severe in the morning and improves throughout the day.
Upon examination, her strength and sensation are normal, but she has limited shoulder and neck range of motion due to discomfort. Her left eye vision is reduced to hand movements only. The patient has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and myocardial infarction and is currently taking atorvastatin, aspirin, ramipril, and bisoprolol.
What is the most likely finding on fundoscopy?Your Answer: Retinal whitening and a cherry red spot
Correct Answer: Engorged pale optic disc with blurred margins
Explanation:The correct answer is engorged pale optic disc with blurred margins. This presentation is highly suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) in a female patient of this age, with preceding proximal muscle pain and stiffness that improves throughout the day. The current bilateral headaches and vision loss are likely due to giant cell arthritis (GCA), a complication strongly associated with PMR. GCA can cause anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, leading to optic disc pallor and swelling, as the immune system damages arteries supplying the optic nerve, leading to thrombus formation and occlusion. Cotton wool spots, hard exudates, and blot hemorrhages are incorrect, as they are seen in diabetic retinopathy, which is not present in this patient. Retinal whitening and a cherry red spot are also incorrect, as they describe central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), which presents as sudden-onset painless visual loss, unlike the current presentation of GCA-induced vision loss.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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Samantha is a 65-year-old with a history of type 2 diabetes who has reported experiencing occasional tingling in her right 4th and 5th fingers. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, leading to numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers. This condition is typically caused by entrapment of the nerve at the elbow and is more common in individuals with diabetes. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist and affects the first three fingers and part of the 4th finger. While it is possible for multiple sclerosis to cause similar symptoms, it is less likely. Alcohol abuse and… (sentence incomplete)
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy came to the clinic with a painful left little finger following a door being shut on it. Upon examination, an X-ray revealed a fracture line that passes through the metaphysis, growth plate, and epiphysis. What classification of fracture is this?
Your Answer: Salter Harris 3
Correct Answer: Salter Harris 4
Explanation:A Salter-Harris type 4 fracture involves the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis.
Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions
Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.
Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.
Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes of arthralgia affecting multiple sites. During physical examination, swelling and tenderness are observed in the right ankle joint, while tenderness on motion and pain are present over the bilateral wrist and left sacroiliac joints. The patient had visited his GP two months ago with symptoms of vomiting, diarrhoea, and fever, for which he received supportive treatment. Synovial fluid analysis from the aspirated ankle joint reveals a high white cell count and no organisms present in the culture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this case is reactive arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that occurs after a distant infection in the gastrointestinal or urogenital area. It is characterized by joint pain, urethritis, and uveitis, and is more common in individuals who have the HLA-B27 gene. The infections that commonly trigger reactive arthritis are caused by Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Campylobacter organisms.
Other possible diagnoses were ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms. Behcet’s disease, which presents with oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, was unlikely due to the lack of ulcers or visual symptoms. Septic arthritis, which causes joint swelling and pain, was also considered but was less likely because it typically affects only one joint and is accompanied by fever and other signs. Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus were also considered but were ruled out due to the absence of their characteristic symptoms.
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.
Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with weakness and a skin rash on his upper eyelids. He also complains of a cough which has been present for 3 months. He has a 50 pack-year smoking history. On examination he is noted to have symmetrical proximal muscle weakness.
What is the most appropriate test from the options below?Your Answer: Anti-Jo 1 antibody
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of dermatomyositis, and the presence of anti-Jo 1 antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old mother of a three-month-old baby visits the clinic with a concern of experiencing wrist pain for a week. The pain is located on the radial side of her wrist, and she feels tenderness over the radial styloid process. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing pain on the radial side of the wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process, which is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is caused by inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons and is commonly seen in women aged 30-50 years old. Finkelstein’s test is positive, which involves grasping the patient’s thumb and abducting the hand to the ulnar side, resulting in pain over the radial styloid process. Carpal tunnel syndrome, osteoarthritis, radial nerve entrapment, and scaphoid fracture are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents with a history of worsening low back pain over the past year. He reports that the pain is more severe after prolonged periods of sitting and experiences stiffness in the morning lasting up to 30 minutes. Despite being an active footballer and gym-goer, he has been troubled by pain in his right Achilles tendon, limiting his physical activity. The GP has referred him to a rheumatologist and ordered lumbar spine and sacroiliac joint x-rays. What collection of findings is most likely to be observed?
Your Answer: Block vertebra and excessive lumbar lordosis
Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of vertebrae
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that typically affects males between the ages of 20-30 and is characterized by low back pain that worsens at rest and improves with activity, as well as early morning stiffness lasting more than 15 minutes. This condition is often associated with Achilles tendinopathy (enthesitis). Radiographic imaging commonly shows subchondral erosions and sclerosis in the sacroiliac joints (sacroiliitis), as well as vertebral body squaring, ligament calcification, and syndesmophytes in the lumbar spine. Over time, these changes can lead to the formation of a ‘bamboo spine’. Block vertebra is a different condition that involves a failure of separation of adjacent vertebral bodies and is not typically seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and subchondral cysts, while rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by marginal erosions, soft tissue swelling, and periarticular osteoporosis. Gout is characterized by soft tissue swelling, punched-out bone lesions, and overhanging sclerotic margins.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 55-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a one-sided headache on his left side and blurry vision in his left eye. The pain extends to his jaw, especially when he chews. He has been experiencing fatigue, muscle pain, and night sweats for the past few weeks. What medical conditions would you anticipate in his medical history?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Temporal arthritis frequently manifests in individuals with PMR.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 38-year-old male comes to his primary care physician complaining of asymmetrical oligoarthritis mainly affecting his lower limbs, accompanied by dysuria and conjunctivitis for the past 2 weeks. He is typically healthy except for experiencing a bout of diarrhea a month ago. What is the initial recommended treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for acute reactive arthritis, provided there are no contraindications, is NSAIDs.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by an asymmetrical oligoarthritis accompanied by urethritis and conjunctivitis, which is preceded by a diarrheal illness. This condition is caused by exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, with chlamydia, salmonella, and Campylobacter jejuni being the most commonly implicated bacteria. The first-line management for this patient should be NSAIDs, as there are no contraindications.
Intra-articular glucocorticoids are not the correct treatment option, although they may be considered in cases of reactive arthritis limited to a small number of joints that do not respond to NSAID treatment. Methotrexate is not appropriate for acute reactive arthritis, but it may be considered for chronic cases that are unresponsive to both NSAIDs and glucocorticoids. Oral glucocorticoids are not the first-line treatment option, but they may be considered if NSAIDs fail to control the patient’s symptoms.
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.
Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to eye casualty with painless partial vision loss on the left side. Over the past two weeks, she has experienced a temporal headache on the left side with tenderness in the left scalp. Additionally, she has noticed pain in her left jaw when chewing. The patient reports low-grade fever and fatigue. She has no prior medical or ophthalmological history.
What would be the expected findings on fundoscopy, given the probable cause of the vision loss?Your Answer: A pale retina with a 'cherry red' spot
Correct Answer: Swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins
Explanation:The correct fundoscopic appearance for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is a swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins. This condition is often seen in patients with temporal arthritis and can cause sudden unilateral vision loss. The patient in this case has classic symptoms of temporal arthritis, including new temporal headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and constitutional symptoms. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is caused by inflammation in the posterior ciliary artery, which leads to occlusion and subsequent ischemia to the head of the optic nerve.
A pale retina with a ‘cherry red’ spot is not the typical fundoscopic appearance for temporal arthritis. This is the typical finding in central retinal artery occlusion, which is not typically inflammatory and is more similar to a stroke. Cupping of the optic disc is also not seen in anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, as this is a typical finding in neuropathy due to glaucoma. Hazy fundus with an absent red reflex is also not related to temporal arthritis, as this is the typical finding in vitreous hemorrhage, which is often caused by bleeding from neovascularization in proliferative diabetic retinopathy, trauma, or retinal detachment.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, is planning to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What pre-operative imaging is necessary?
Your Answer: Hand radiographs
Correct Answer: Anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs
Explanation:Although rare, atlantoaxial subluxation is a significant complication of rheumatoid arthritis due to its potential to cause cervical cord compression. To prevent this, preoperative screening using anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs is essential. This screening ensures that the patient is fitted with a C-spine collar and that their neck is not hyperextended during intubation. While hand radiographs aid in diagnosis, they are not required before surgery. Although not necessary for screening, CT scans of the cervical spine may be beneficial if any abnormalities are detected.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that can lead to various complications beyond joint pain and inflammation. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and immune system. Some of the respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, and bronchiolitis obliterans. Eye-related complications may include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, scleritis, and corneal ulceration. RA can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, infections, and depression. Less common complications may include Felty’s syndrome and amyloidosis.
It is important to note that these complications may not affect all individuals with RA and the severity of the complications can vary. However, it is essential for individuals with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or address any complications that may arise. Regular check-ups and monitoring of symptoms can help detect and manage any complications early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male patient complains of sudden onset severe pain in his right hip for the past 10 days. He also experiences high-grade fever with chills that comes and goes despite taking paracetamol. The pain is intense, non-radiating, and worsens with hip movements. He denies any history of trauma. What is the most important diagnostic test for this patient's likely condition?
Your Answer: Bone scan
Correct Answer: Synovial fluid analysis
Explanation:The primary investigation for patients suspected of having septic arthritis is the sampling of synovial fluid.
Septic arthritis is a joint inflammation caused by the introduction of infectious microorganisms into the joint.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing for prolonged periods and struggles to rise from a seated position. Upon examination, her hands appear excessively dry and cracked, with rough erythematous papules and plaques present on the extensor surfaces of her fingers. Additionally, there is reduced power in her hips and shoulders. The patient has a history of anxiety and frequently washes her hands due to fear of spreading germs during the COVID-19 pandemic. She has also been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, consuming 40 cigarettes per day.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Offer topical high-potency corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules primarily located over the knuckles.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Megan, a 16-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. During the examination, it is noted that she has a unilateral shoulder deformity and her shoulder is stuck in an internally rotated position. A shoulder x-ray has been requested.
What findings would you anticipate on Megan's shoulder x-ray?Your Answer: Clavicular fracture
Correct Answer: Posterior shoulder dislocation
Explanation:FOOSH is commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocation, while seizures and electric shock are more likely to cause posterior shoulder dislocation.
When a person falls onto an outstretched hand, it can result in an anterior shoulder dislocation, which is characterized by a visible deformity in the affected shoulder. On the other hand, clavicular fracture is often observed in FOOSH cases, which can also cause deformity along the clavicle.
X-rays may not show a normal shoulder in cases where the patient presents with unilateral shoulder deformity.
In contrast, seizures and electric shock are more likely to cause posterior shoulder dislocation, which can also result in a visible deformity in the affected shoulder. While anterior instability and dislocations are still more common in seizures, a shoulder that is locked in an internally rotated position is highly suggestive of a posterior dislocation.
Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.
There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game over the weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.
During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noted. He is able to bear weight and move around the room without difficulty. However, his range of motion is restricted due to pain, particularly during external rotation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)
Correct Answer: Acetabular labral tear
Explanation:Understanding Acetabular Labral Tears
Acetabular labral tears are a common condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes in the hip joint. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of an injury, while older adults may develop it due to age-related wear and tear. The main symptoms of an acetabular labral tear include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking.
Treatment options may include physical therapy, medication, or surgery, depending on the severity of the tear and your overall health. With proper care and management, most people with acetabular labral tears can find relief from their symptoms and return to their normal activities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You see a 14-year-old boy with his father. He is normally completely fit and well and extremely active. He is a keen soccer player and also enjoys running. He noticed a lump behind his left knee one week ago, it seemed to come on suddenly. He can't remember ever injuring his knee. It is not painful but his knee does feel 'tight'.
On examination, he has a round, soft fluctuant mass behind his left knee in the medial popliteal fossa. It is approximately the size of a baseball. The swelling feels tense in full knee extension and soften again or disappear when the knee is flexed. Flexion is slightly reduced.
What is the most likely diagnosis here?Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament tear
Correct Answer: Baker's cyst
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a child with a soft, painless swelling behind the knee is a Baker’s cyst. An anterior cruciate ligament tear usually occurs after a twisting injury, is painful, and does not typically present with a lump in the popliteal fossa. A popliteal artery aneurysm would be pulsatile and uncommon in children. A rhabdomyosarcoma is unlikely to be painless and may have other symptoms of systemic disease.
Understanding Baker’s Cysts
Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. These cysts can be primary or secondary. Primary cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary cysts are associated with an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults.
Baker’s cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa, which is located behind the knee. In some cases, the cyst may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic.
In children, Baker’s cysts typically resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. However, in adults, it is important to treat the underlying cause where appropriate. Understanding the nature of Baker’s cysts and their associated symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of swelling in the joints of her hands for the past 4 months. She reports stiffness in the morning that lasts for an hour before improving throughout the day. There is no pain or swelling in any other part of her body. Upon examination, there is tenderness and swelling in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands. An x-ray of her hands and feet is taken, and she is given a dose of intramuscular methylprednisolone and started on methotrexate.
What is the most crucial additional treatment she should be offered?Your Answer: Folate to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in potential children
Correct Answer: Folate to reduce the risk of bone marrow suppression
Explanation:Prescribing folate alongside methotrexate is an effective way to decrease the risk of myelosuppression. This patient’s symptoms suggest that she may have rheumatoid arthritis, which is often treated with methotrexate as a first-line option. However, methotrexate can inhibit dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme involved in folate metabolism, which can lead to bone marrow suppression. To prevent this, folate is prescribed alongside methotrexate to ensure that the patient’s red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are not reduced to dangerous levels.
B12 supplementation is not necessary in this case, as methotrexate is not known to cause deficiencies in B12. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be considered if blood tests or symptoms indicate a deficiency, but they are not necessary at this time. Similarly, bisphosphonates are not needed as the patient is not at significant risk of osteoporosis due to her short-term use of corticosteroids.
Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.
The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.
When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.
In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman visits your clinic after experiencing a fall in her kitchen last week. She was evaluated in the emergency department and was found to have some bruising, but no fractures. She expresses concern about the possibility of falling again and the risk of future fractures. You recommend an evaluation of her fracture risk. What would be the most suitable method for assessing her fracture risk?
Your Answer: FRAX tool
Explanation:The Fracture Risk Assessment tool (FRAX) was created by the World Health Organisation (WHO) to evaluate the risk of fractures in patients aged 40 to 90 years old, regardless of whether they have a bone mineral density (BMD) value. NICE recommends using FRAX or QFRACTURE to assess the risk of fragility fractures, with FRAX being the only option available in this case. While DEXA is used to measure BMD, FRAX should be used initially to determine the patient’s risk, and further investigation with a DEXA scan may be necessary based on the results. X-rays of the carpal bones or head of the humerus would not be appropriate, and a bone scan (bone scintigraphy) would not provide information on the patient’s risk of fracture. The source for this information is NICE 2012 guidelines on assessing the risk of fragility fracture in patients with osteoporosis.
Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.
NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.
If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During a routine examination for private medical insurance, a 30-year-old female with a history of Ehler-Danlos syndrome presents with widespread bruising and a faint diastolic murmur on chest auscultation. What is the most likely complication of Ehler-Danlos that she is experiencing?
Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Aortic regurgitation is a cardiac complication that can arise from Ehler-Danlos syndrome.
Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects collagen, leading to increased tissue elasticity. The condition has various subtypes, but type III collagen is typically affected in most cases, and it is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.
When a diastolic murmur is present, the most probable causes are mitral stenosis and aortic regurgitation. Individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome are more likely to experience valvular incompetence due to the connective tissue abnormalities. Although aortic dissection is another potential complication of Ehler-Danlos, it is unlikely to manifest in this manner.
Atrial and ventricular septal defects are not commonly linked to Ehler-Danlos syndrome.
Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile and easily bruised skin, as well as recurrent joint dislocations. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe right-sided hip pain following a car accident. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and COPD and is currently taking prednisolone, alendronic acid, colecalciferol, and a salbutamol inhaler. Upon examination, she is visibly in pain and unable to bear weight on her right leg. Her right leg appears shortened and externally rotated compared to the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hip fracture
Explanation:The patient’s hip fracture is supported by several major risk factors, including being an elderly female, long-term steroid use, and a traumatic injury. A common finding in hip fractures is a shortened, externally rotated leg, which is also present in this case. Additionally, the patient is unable to bear weight on the affected leg.
A is an incorrect answer as this condition typically occurs in obese teenagers and would not present in adult patients.
B is the correct answer.
C is an incorrect answer as while these fractures can occur in high-energy traumatic injuries, they are less common than hip fractures and would present with a visibly deformed thigh.
D is an incorrect answer as this injury can occur in high-energy traumatic injuries, but it would result in a shortened, internally rotated leg.
E is an incorrect answer as there is no evidence of prior hip pathology from the patient’s history, and the acute onset of symptoms does not support this diagnosis.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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- Musculoskeletal
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