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  • Question 1 - A father attends the eye casualty with his 10-year-old daughter who has developed...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends the eye casualty with his 10-year-old daughter who has developed a red eye. The father says that the red eye started about a day ago. The child does not have decreased visual acuity but claims that her eyes feel itchy. She recently had a cold sore with runny nose and mild temperature. The girl is otherwise healthy and has been developing normally, and she does not have any swallowing difficulties. She does not suffer from any other conditions and does not have any allergies. There is no discharge seen and the eyelids are not sticky.
      Which of the following medication is the most appropriate to treat this patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Child with Conjunctivitis: An Overview

      When a child presents with symptoms of conjunctivitis, it is important to consider the possible causes and choose the appropriate treatment. In the case of a child with a recent cold sore, the most likely cause is a herpes simplex infection. Oral acyclovir can be used to treat this type of viral conjunctivitis. However, prescribing prednisolone drops can worsen the infection and should be avoided.

      If the child is very young and cannot swallow tablets, syrup acyclovir can be used instead. Chloramphenicol eye drops are often used for bacterial conjunctivitis, but this patient does not have any discharge. Sodium cromoglycate is used for allergic conjunctivitis, but this child does not have a history of allergies. By considering the specific symptoms and history of the child, the appropriate treatment can be chosen to effectively manage the conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for a routine antenatal visit. She is 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. On examination, she is well and has a symphysis fundal height of 33 cm. Her blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg and she has 2++ protein in the urine.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension in Pregnancy

      Hypertension in pregnancy can be a serious condition that requires urgent assessment and management. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by both hypertension and proteinuria, is a common diagnosis. Early detection and management can prevent complications.

      Normal blood pressure during pregnancy typically drops slightly in the first and second trimesters and rises back to pre-pregnancy levels in the third trimester. However, some patients may have chronic hypertension that was previously undiagnosed.

      White-coat hypertension, where blood pressure is elevated in a clinical setting but normal at home, should be ruled out before a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension is made. This type of hypertension occurs after week 20 of pregnancy but without proteinuria. Regular screening for proteinuria is necessary in these cases.

      In cases of mild to moderate hypertension, patients may be admitted to the hospital and monitored or started on oral labetalol. Severe hypertension requires immediate hospitalization and treatment. Overall, understanding hypertension in pregnancy is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      96.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history of vomiting and regurgitation of non-bilious materials, mostly consisting of ingested milk. The vomiting has lately become projectile. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant, and a periodic wave of peristalsis is visible in the epigastric region. The neonate has puffy hands and feet and redundant skin in the neck. A systolic murmur is noted on the cardiac apex. Laboratory tests reveal hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Neonate with Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis and Other Symptoms

      Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes gastric outlet obstruction and is more common in neonates with Turner syndrome. Other symptoms in this scenario include puffy hands and feet due to lymphoedema, redundant skin in the neck due to early resolution of cystic hygroma, and a systolic murmur likely caused by coarctation of the aorta. Non-bilious vomiting distinguishes pyloric stenosis from duodenal atresia.

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with vomiting, hypoxia, and a scaphoid abdomen, but is not typically associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

      Down syndrome is characterized by flat and broad facies, epicanthal folds, simian creases, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

      Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome and presents with bilious vomiting, while this scenario involves non-bilious vomiting.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with Down syndrome and VACTERL association, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What gene is considered a suppressor of tumours? ...

    Incorrect

    • What gene is considered a suppressor of tumours?

      Your Answer: ras

      Correct Answer: Rb

      Explanation:

      Tumour Suppressor Genes and Familial Cancers

      Tumour suppressor genes were initially discovered through the creation of cell hybrids between normal and tumour cells. In some cases, a chromosome from the normal cell was able to reverse the transformed phenotype. The loss of function of tumour suppressor genes has been linked to several familial cancers. These genes include Retinoblastoma susceptibility gene (RB), Wilms’ tumours (WT1), Neurofibromatosis type-1 (NF1), and Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (FAP).

      One example of a gene commonly mutated in acute myeloid leukaemia is RUNX1, but it is not considered a tumour suppressor gene. The identification of tumour suppressor genes has been crucial in the development of cancer and the potential for targeted therapies. By studying these genes and their associated familial cancers, researchers can gain insight into the mechanisms of tumour formation and potentially develop new treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange to review with view to colonoscopy at aged 30

      Correct Answer: Arrange colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

      Explanation:
      It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.

      In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.

      Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      98.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman has been seen by her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been seen by her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of moderate anxiety, including frequent panic attacks, feeling very tired all the time, poor appetite and a short temper. She is taking time off work, arguing with her family and friends and becoming increasingly isolated as a result of the symptoms. She has tried cognitive behavioural therapy but found no benefit. She would like to try medication, and the GP has agreed to start citalopram.
      What advice should she be given before starting the medication?

      Your Answer: He will feel a significant improvement in his symptoms after one week of taking the medication

      Correct Answer: There is a risk he will develop discontinuation symptoms if he abruptly stops taking the medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

      When taking an SSRI, it is important to be aware of potential discontinuation symptoms if the medication is stopped abruptly. These symptoms can include rebound anxiety or depressive symptoms, flu-like symptoms, dizziness, nausea, or sleep disturbances. Patients should seek advice from a doctor before reducing or withdrawing the medication, and it is recommended that the discontinuation is done over four weeks.

      While patients may feel some benefit after one week of taking an SSRI, the full benefit can take up to 12 weeks. It is important to be patient and continue taking the medication as prescribed.

      During the first three months of starting medication, patients should be seen every two to four weeks to monitor for adverse effects such as increased anxiety symptoms, sleep disturbance, or gastrointestinal upset. After this initial period, patients should be seen every three months, with the frequency of reviews potentially increasing if symptoms worsen.

      Possible side-effects of taking an SSRI include dyspepsia, worsening of anxiety symptoms, agitation, and sleep problems. Patients should be aware of these potential side-effects.

      While there is an increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm for patients under the age of 30 starting an SSRI, this risk is not present for everyone. Patients under 30 should be monitored more closely for signs of suicidal thoughts or self-harm and seen weekly for the first month after medication is started.

      In summary, understanding the potential risks and benefits of taking an SSRI is important for patients to make informed decisions about their mental health treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.8
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  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her fingers turning white, blue, and red intermittently for the past four months. She also reports tightness of the skin on her fingers, hands, and face, without involvement of the skin on her upper arm or chest. Additionally, she experiences troubling reflux symptoms. On examination, there is fibrotic skin overlying the hands and face with telangiectasia. Which autoantibody is most likely to be positive in this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ro antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of skin tightening, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and telangiectasia in this patient suggests a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. The limited subtype is most likely as there is no involvement of the upper arm and chest. Anti-centromere antibodies are commonly associated with this subtype. Anti-RNA polymerase III and anti-Scl-70 antibodies are more commonly associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis, which involves the chest and upper arms and more severe internal organ involvement. Anti-Ro antibodies are typically associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is unlikely in this patient. Anti-dsDNA antibodies are commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but systemic sclerosis is more likely given the absence of a butterfly rash and the presence of oesophageal dysmotility.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in a bent position. She finds it challenging to extend it without using her other hand, and occasionally hears a clicking sound when she does so.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trigger finger

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Conditions: Trigger Finger, Dupuytren’s Contracture, and Osteoarthritis

      Trigger Finger: A common cause of hand pain and disability, trigger finger occurs when the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This results in a fixed flexion of the finger, which pops back suddenly when released. It may be due to trauma or have no obvious cause. Treatment may include corticosteroid injection or tendon release surgery.

      Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes a fixed flexion contracture of the hand, making it difficult to straighten the affected fingers.

      Osteoarthritis: A degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis may cause deformity and pain in the affected joint, but not the symptoms of trigger finger.

      Other possible hand conditions include cramp and tetany, which may cause muscle spasms and tingling sensations. It is important to seek medical attention for any persistent hand pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland? ...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Peptides Secreted by the Pituitary Gland

      The pituitary gland secretes various hormones that regulate different bodily functions. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes two peptides, oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Oxytocin, which is produced in the hypothalamus, stimulates uterine contractions during labor and is involved in the release of milk from the lactating breast. ADH, also known as vasopressin, is also produced in the hypothalamus and regulates water balance in the body.

      On the other hand, the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes six peptide hormones. These hormones include adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), growth hormone (GH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH). ACTH stimulates the adrenal gland to produce cortisol, which helps the body respond to stress. Prolactin stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism. GH promotes growth and development in children and helps maintain muscle and bone mass in adults. FSH and LH regulate the reproductive system, with FSH stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles in females and sperm production in males, while LH triggers ovulation in females and testosterone production in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about atopic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about atopic eczema?

      Your Answer: Is a generalised rash over the whole body

      Correct Answer: Usually starts in the first year of life

      Explanation:

      Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a skin condition that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of asthma, hay fever, and eczema. One of the common causes of this condition is cow’s milk, and switching to a milk hydrolysate may help alleviate symptoms. The condition typically affects the face, ears, elbows, and knees.

      It is important to note that topical steroids should only be used sparingly if symptoms cannot be controlled. Atopic eczema often develops in the first year of life, making it crucial for parents to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. By the causes and symptoms of atopic eczema, individuals can take steps to manage the condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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