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  • Question 1 - What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on...

    Correct

    • What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:

      The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions

      The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.

      The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation of his leg at mid-thigh level. Resuscitation with 1 L gelofusine was done and four units of packed red blood cells were given before theatre. Thirty minutes following blood transfusion, the patient became flushed, breathless, hypotensive, develops haemoglobinuria, and had a fever of 38oC. Which one of the following correctly explains the patient signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Non-immune haemolytic transfusion reaction

      Correct Answer: Activation of classic complement pathway

      Explanation:

      This may be the classical case of blood transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility.

      Here red cells are destroyed in the bloodstream with the release of haemoglobin in circulation (causing haemoglobinuria). Here, IgM or IgG anti-A or anti-B antibody can cause rapid activation of complement cascade usually the classical pathway. This is called intravascular haemolysis.

      There may be extravascular haemolysis by cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system situated in the liver and spleen. Extravascular red cell destruction can increase breakdown products of haemoglobin, such as bilirubin and urobilinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?

      Your Answer: It is principally manufactured in the liver

      Correct Answer: Production is increased in heart failure

      Explanation:

      During glycolysis, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is
      created in erythrocytes by the Rapoport-Luebering shunt.

      The production of 2,3-DPG increases for several conditions
      in the presence of decreased peripheral tissue O2 availability.
      Some of these conditions include hypoxaemia, chronic lung
      disease anaemia, and congestive heart failure. Thus,
      2,3-DPG production is likely an important adaptive mechanism.

      High levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the right.
      Low levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the left,
      as seen in states such as septic shock and hypophosphatemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with: Pulse rate: 32...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with: Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg 12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed. Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar content affect the body weight to a different level. Which one of the following test will determine a statistically significant difference among the diets?

      Your Answer: Students t-test

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.

      Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.

      Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.

      Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

      ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.

      ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain. Which nerve is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain. Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:

      Your Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body

      Explanation:

      The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.

      Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.

      The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.

      PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be €œblind€� on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main...

    Correct

    • Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?

      Your Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term parenteral nutrition. To gain venous access, the line is inserted into the basilic vein at the elbow region. As the catheter tip advances into the basilic vein, which venous structure will it first encounter?

      Your Answer: Subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Axillary vein

      Explanation:

      A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is a long, thin tube inserted into the vein of a patient’s arm to gain access to the large central veins near the heart. PICC line is indicated for parenteral nutrition or to deliver medications. They can be used for medium-term venous access, defined as anywhere between several weeks to 6 months.

      The veins of choice for PICC are:
      1. Basilic
      2. Brachial
      3. Cephalic
      4. Medial cubital vein

      The vein of choice is the right basilic vein as it has a large circumference and is located superficially. It has the most straight route to the final destination of PICC (SVC or Right atrium). It courses through the axillary vein, then the subclavian, and finally settles into the SVC. It also has the least number of valves and a shallow angle of insertion when compared to the other veins.

      The basilic vein drains the medial end of the dorsal arch of the upper limb, passes along the medial aspect of the forearm, and pierces the deep fascia at the elbow. The basilic vein joins the venae comitantes of the brachial artery to form the axillary vein at the elbow.
      The posterior circumflex humeral vein is encountered before the axillary vein. However, a PICC line is unlikely to enter this structure because of its entry angle into the basilic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      88.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
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