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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100–135 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 3.8–11 × 109/l
Platelets 150 × 109/l 150–400 × 1109/l
Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85–105 fl
Reticulocytes 6% 0.2–2%
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.
Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.
Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department after a car accident. She develops a fever and becomes anxious after 30 minutes. The transfusion is stopped and the following observations are made: respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 74 bpm, saturations 98% (room air), blood pressure 125/85 mmHg, temperature 39ºC. The patient is comfortable at rest and chest auscultation reveals no wheezing. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's reaction?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks
Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.
It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for the past three days, he has had a high fever (up to 40 °C), vomiting and night sweats. For the last four weeks, he has been lethargic and has sweated through his pyjamas almost every night. He has had several nosebleeds in this time period, which his parents attributed to dry air from the heater. He has also been complaining that his back hurts.
On examination, his temperature is 39.5 °C, his heart rate 140 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and his respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute. He appears acutely ill, and you notice small petechiae on his abdomen.
Which one of the following would an examination of peripheral lymphocytes most likely show?Your Answer: A clonal population of immature cells expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a common pediatric cancer that occurs due to the clonal expansion of immature T lymphocytes expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). This protein is involved in gene rearrangements during T-cell receptor and immunoglobulin development and is no longer expressed after maturation. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and infections. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow aspirate and biopsy, and treatment involves pegaspargase, which interferes with malignant cell growth. Hairy cell leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes with thin cytoplasmic projections and is mostly seen in middle-aged men. Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a chromosomal translocation leading to a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, treated with imatinib. Promyelocytic leukemia is an aggressive form of acute myeloid leukemia with a clonal population of immature cells containing Auer rods. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is characterized by a clonal population of mature B cells, often seen in the elderly population and referred to as smudge cells on peripheral smear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in her groin that she noticed 2 weeks ago. The lump has grown slightly since she first noticed it. On examination, a hard lump is palpable on her left labia majora and she has left inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has no significant past medical history and no known allergies.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for an older woman with a labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy is vulval carcinoma, especially if the lump is firm and has grown rapidly over a short period of time. Risk factors for this condition include advanced age, smoking, and HPV infection. Bartholin’s cyst, condylomata lata, lipoma, and sebaceous cyst are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with the same symptoms or risk factors as vulval carcinoma.
Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man who comes to see you concerned about prostate cancer. You perform a digital rectal exam which reveals an enlarged, firm and irregular prostate. What would be the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Repeat PSA in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to urology as 2 week wait referral
Explanation:The appropriate way to address the patient is as a 2-week wait referral. According to the NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer referrals, if a hard, irregular prostate indicative of prostate carcinoma is detected during rectal examination, urgent referral is necessary. Along with the referral, the PSA test result should also be included. It is important to note that the PSA test is not always reliable in detecting prostate cancer, as around 1 in 50 men with fast-growing prostate cancer have a normal PSA level.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of left breast cancer and had undergone local wide excision recently. She is scheduled to begin radiotherapy soon. After a diagnostic workup, it was discovered that she has a segmental pulmonary embolism. Her blood tests indicate good renal function. What is the most suitable treatment option for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:For cancer patients with VTE, the recommended treatment is a DOAC for a period of 6 months. Among the DOACs, apixaban is the most suitable option as it has been found to have a lower risk of bleeding complications compared to LMWH and VKA. Moreover, patients taking apixaban can benefit from oral treatment and avoid frequent monitoring required with other anticoagulation treatments. Studies have also shown that apixaban is the most cost-effective option as it results in fewer bleeds.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the Genetic Counselling Clinic after being diagnosed with colon cancer through the national bowel cancer screening programme. He was adopted as a child and has no knowledge of his biological family's medical history.
What is the most suitable genetic disorder to test for in this individual?Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Correct Answer: Lynch syndrome
Explanation:Lynch syndrome is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer by over 80%. It also raises the risk of other cancers such as endometrial, stomach, breast, ovarian, small bowel, pancreatic, prostate, urinary tract, kidney, and liver cancer. Genetic testing is recommended for anyone diagnosed with colorectal cancer, regardless of age.
Breast cancer (BRCA) mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and significantly increase the risk of developing breast, ovarian, prostate, and pancreatic cancer. These cancers tend to occur at a younger age than in the general population. While there is a possible link to colorectal pathology, other genetic syndromes should be considered first when looking for a genetic cause of cancer.
Cowden syndrome is a rare genetic condition characterized by benign growths called hamartomas on various parts of the body. It increases the risk of developing breast, thyroid, or endometrial cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.
Familial adenomatous polyposis is an autosomal dominant condition that causes widespread colorectal adenomas, with polyps usually developing in late childhood. This greatly increases the risk of colorectal cancer, and prophylactic colectomy is often performed. Screening is recommended for those with an affected first-degree relative or multiple polyps detected on colonoscopy.
Von Hippel-Landau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes multiple benign tumors and cysts in various parts of the body, including the brain, spinal cord, eyes, adrenals, kidneys, and pancreas. It increases the risk of renal and pancreatic cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions
Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:
1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.
2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.
3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.
4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.
5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is found to have breast cancer. She has no significant medical history, is premenopausal, and has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. The cancer is in its early stages and she undergoes a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors but negative for HER2. What is the most probable adjuvant treatment that she will be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:The use of Tamoxifen is limited to pre-menopausal women, and there is a continuing discussion regarding the duration of therapy, whether it should be for 5 years or more.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)
Explanation:The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.
Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification
Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.
Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.
Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is receiving treatment at the Haematology Clinic for multiple myeloma (MM). He is a newly diagnosed non-transplant candidate.
Various blood tests are being conducted to monitor response to treatment and determine prognosis.
What is considered the most crucial factor for predicting survival and prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-2 microglobulin
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. Prognostic factors are important in determining the severity of the disease and predicting survival rates. Here are some key factors to consider:
Beta-2 microglobulin: This protein is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and is associated with the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)–histocompatibility complex. Elevated levels of serum beta-2 microglobulin are linked to poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients.
Serum creatinine: High levels of creatinine indicate renal impairment, which is common in multiple myeloma patients and is associated with a poor prognosis.
Albumin: Low levels of albumin are related to the extent of myeloma proliferation and are therefore of diagnostic and prognostic importance. An albumin level of 29.0 g/l or less is a sign of advanced disease.
C-Reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels before autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) are associated with worse overall survival in multiple myeloma patients, especially those who had a transplant more than 12 months after diagnosis.
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): High LDH levels at the time of diagnosis are a marker of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients. Increased LDH is associated with worse overall survival, progression-free survival, aggressive disease, and high tumor burden.
Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and provide patients with more accurate information about their disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has massive splenomegaly and pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count shows a Hb of 10.9 g/dl, platelets of 702 * 109/l, and a WCC of 56.6 * 109/l. Leucocytosis is noted on her film, with all stages of granulocyte maturation seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:Massive splenomegaly can be caused by myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), malaria, and Gaucher’s syndrome. Among these, chronic myeloid leukemia is the most probable diagnosis, as it is the most common cause.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer presents to his General Practitioner with generalised pain. He states that he has always had aches and pains from old age, but that this is different: he can feel the pain particularly in his back at night.
What is the most likely site to be involved in bone metastasis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spine
Explanation:Common Sites of Metastatic Spread in Bone
Metastatic spread to the bone is a common occurrence in many types of cancer. The following are some of the most common sites of metastases in bone:
Spine: The spine is the most common site for bony metastases, with spread often found from a range of solid and haematological cancers, as well as infectious diseases such as tuberculosis.
Ribs: While breast cancer is known to spread to the ribs, this is not the case for many other cancers.
Pelvis: The pelvis is a prevalent site of metastatic spread occurring mostly from the prostate, breast, kidney, lung, and thyroid cancer.
Skull: Skull metastases are seen in 15-25% of all cancer patients and tend to include those from the breast, lungs, prostate, and thyroid, as well as melanoma.
Long bones: Localised bone pain is a red flag for metastatic spread to any of the long bones such as the femur and humerus. Breast, prostate, renal, thyroid, and lung cancers frequently metastasize to these areas.
Overall, understanding the common sites of metastatic spread in bone can help with early detection and treatment of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis
Explanation:Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past two months. During examination, she appears to be anaemic.
What is the most probable vitamin deficiency causing her anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Vegan Nutrition: Understanding the Availability of Vitamins
As a vegan, it is important to understand the availability of vitamins in your diet. One vitamin that vegans are at risk of deficiency in is vitamin B12, which is primarily found in animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and milk. However, there are vegan-friendly sources of vitamin B12 such as fortified cereals and plant-based milks.
Contrary to popular belief, vitamin B6, vitamin A, vitamin B1, and vitamin C are all readily available in vegan-friendly foods. Vitamin B6 can be found in bread, whole grains, vegetables, peanuts, and potatoes. Vitamin A can be found in yellow, red, and green vegetables as well as yellow fruits. Vitamin B1 can be found in peas, fruit, whole grain bread, and fortified cereals. Vitamin C is predominantly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, peppers, strawberries, broccoli, potatoes, and Brussels sprouts.
By understanding the availability of vitamins in vegan-friendly foods, vegans can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs and maintaining a healthy diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas
Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:
Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.
Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.
Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.
Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with fatigue, lethargy, weight loss and night sweats for the past six weeks. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. His GP orders a set of blood tests. The full blood count results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
White Blood Cells 21.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.8 ×109/l 2.5–7.58 ×109/l
Lymphocytes 18.2 × 109/l 1.5–3.5× 109/l
Platelets 160 g/l 150–400× 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for lymphocytosis in an elderly patient with vague symptoms
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most likely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient who presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats and fatigue for six weeks. CLL is one of the most common types of leukaemia in adults, typically occurring during or after middle age and rarely in children.
Other possible diagnoses can be ruled out based on additional clinical features. Patients with HIV tend to have lymphopenia, not lymphocytosis. Lymphomas usually present with an enlargement of a lymph node, which is not reported in this case. Patients with polymyalgia rheumatica tend to have a normal leukocyte count, with some cases having increased estimated sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein. A transient viral illness would be an unlikely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly person with persistent symptoms.
Therefore, CLL should be considered as the most likely diagnosis in this case, and further tests such as flow cytometry and bone marrow biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the stage of the disease. Treatment options for CLL depend on the stage and other factors such as age and overall health, and may include watchful waiting, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or targeted therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency department confused. He is unable to provide further history but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and abdomen is soft with no tenderness. The initial blood tests reveal:
- Na+ 134 mmol/l
- K+ 4.7 mmol/l
- Urea 7.8 mmol/l
- Creatinine 104 µmol/l
- Adjusted Ca2+ 3.5 mmol/l
- Mg2+ 0.81 mmol/l
What would be your initial treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:Severe cases (>3.0 mmol/l) requiring admission are often caused by malignancy, as seen in this patient. Treatment involves obtaining IV access and conducting appropriate biochemistry tests to check for other electrolyte abnormalities. A chest x-ray and ECG should also be performed. The first intervention should be fluid resuscitation to replace the deficit and maintain hydration, which may require large volumes (3-4 litres in the first 24 hours). If hypercalcaemia persists, IV bisphosphonates like zoledronate or pamidronate can be administered. Specific anticancer therapies can be considered after this.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rouleaux formation
Explanation:Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of cough, fever and difficulty breathing. During the examination, he is found to be hypoxic and chest x-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates. He has been experiencing anaemia, jaundice and weakness since he was 6 months old, and also suffers from severe pain when exposed to cold temperatures. What is the probable underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:When a patient with sickle cell disease experiences dyspnoea, chest pain, cough, hypoxia, and new pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, it is likely that they are suffering from acute chest syndrome. This is a complication specific to sickle cell anaemia, and is characterized by the presence of these symptoms along with the aforementioned pulmonary infiltrates.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of headache, fatigue and weakness. Recently, she had a prolonged menstrual bleeding that only stopped after the application of compression for a long time. She also suffered from a urinary tract infection the previous month. She has no family history of a bleeding disorder.
On examination, she has pallor, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Investigations reveal that she has a low haemoglobin level, a low white blood cell count and a low platelet count; numerous blast cells are visible on peripheral blood film. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 30% of blast cells. The blood film is shown below.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several types of leukaemia, including acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), and hairy cell leukaemia. AML is characterized by the rapid proliferation of immature myeloid cells called blasts, which can cause anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding problems, and an increased risk of infections. ALL is caused by a clonal proliferation of lymphoid precursors, which can lead to pancytopenia and symptoms such as fever and abdominal pain. CLL is the most common type of leukaemia and is caused by the clonal proliferation of monoclonal B lymphocytes. CML is the rarest form of leukaemia and is caused by a chromosomal translocation involving chromosomes 9 and 22. Hairy cell leukaemia is characterized by the presence of abnormal white cells with hair-like cytoplasmic projections. Treatment for leukaemia typically involves chemotherapy and sometimes a bone marrow transplant, depending on the type of disease present. Prognosis varies depending on the type of leukaemia and the age of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy
Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.
Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.
Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in one calf. Upon Doppler ultrasound scan, an unprovoked DVT is discovered. She expresses a strong desire to start a family with her partner within the next year. Which medication would be the most appropriate choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:Warfarin is not recommended for treating VTE in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. LMWH is the first-line treatment with below-knee compression stockings as an adjunct. Aspirin is not a suitable treatment for VTE.
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. It inhibits epoxide reductase, preventing the reduction of vitamin K and the carboxylation of clotting factors. Warfarin is monitored using the INR and may take several days to achieve a stable level. Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, and NSAIDs. Side effects include haemorrhage, teratogenicity, skin necrosis, and purple toes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is evaluated in the DVT clinic and a raised D-dimer is detected. A Doppler scan reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and feeling well, the patient has not undergone any recent surgeries or been immobile for an extended period. As a result, he is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant. What is the optimal duration of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visited his GP after he discovered a solid lump in his left testis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Common Scrotal Conditions: Understanding Testicular Lumps and Swellings
Testicular lumps and swellings can be a cause for concern, but not all of them are cancerous. In fact, most scrotal conditions are benign and can be easily treated. Here are some common scrotal conditions and their characteristics:
Teratoma: This solid testicular lump is suggestive of a tumour and typically presents in young soldiers aged 20-30 years.
Seminoma: This tumour usually presents in more senior soldiers aged 35-45 years.
Epididymal cyst: This benign, fluid-filled lump is usually found at the head of the epididymis and is separate from the testis.
Hydrocele: This painless, cystic, scrotal swelling lies below and anterior to the testes and will normally transilluminate.
Varicocele: This painless swelling of the testes on the left side (rarely on the right) is described as a bag of worms within the spermatic cord above the testis. It tends to occur in those aged 12+ years and is associated with infertility in approximately a quarter of men with abnormal semen parameters.
If you notice any changes in your scrotum, it is important to seek medical attention. Your healthcare provider can help determine the cause of the lump or swelling and recommend appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
Haematocrit 38% 40–54%
Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 × 1012/l 4.0–5.0 × 1012/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80–100 fl
Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27–32 pg
Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32–36 g/dl
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 241 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5–3.5%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding β-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy
β-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish β-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.
If both parents have β-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with β-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for β-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.
In summary, understanding β-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a prosthetic valve five years ago and is currently on warfarin therapy. He has been experiencing fatigue for the past three months and a recent full blood count revealed the following results: Hb 10.3 g/dl, MCV 68 fl, Plt 356 * 109/l, and WBC 5.2 * 109/l. The blood film showed hypochromia and his INR was 3.0. An upper GI endoscopy was performed and was reported as normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Lower gastrointestinal tract investigation should be conducted on any patient in this age group who has an unexplained microcytic anaemia to rule out the possibility of colorectal cancer.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bone marrow biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.
Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.
Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.
Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.
CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.
Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.
In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits his doctor for a routine follow-up blood test that reveals elevated levels of a tumour marker in his blood. Which of the following is most commonly linked to increased levels of serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Common Cancers
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They are used to help diagnose and monitor the progression of cancer. Here are the most common tumour markers associated with some of the most prevalent cancers:
Hepatocellular carcinoma: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is the most likely tumour marker associated with this type of liver cancer, which often develops in people with chronic liver diseases.
Breast cancer: Cancer antigen 15-3 (CA 15-3) is the most likely tumour marker associated with breast cancer, which affects both men and women.
Colorectal cancer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is the most likely tumour marker associated with colorectal cancer, which can develop from polyps in the colon or rectum.
Pancreatic cancer: CA 19-9 is the most likely tumour marker associated with pancreatic cancer, which is often difficult to detect in its early stages.
Prostate cancer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the most likely tumour marker associated with prostate cancer, which is the most common cancer in men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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