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Question 1
Incorrect
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Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates?
Your Answer: Metaplasia
Correct Answer: Dysplasia
Explanation:Dysplasia has 4 microscopic characteristics:
Anisocytosis (unequal cell size)
Poikilocytosis (abnormal cell shape)
Hyperchromatism (pigmentation)
Mitotic figures (increased cells currently dividing)Hyperplasia and hypertrophy is characterised by increase in cell number and increase in cell size respectively, whereas atrophy means decrease in cell size.
Metaplasia is characterised by change of one form of cell to another type e.g. changes of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30 year old woman with a history of two previous C section deliveries, is rushed to the hospital for an emergency c-section at 36 weeks gestation due to antenatal haemorrhage. Upon examination of the uterus, the placenta has invaded the myometrium but the serosa is spared. Which of the following identifies this condition?
Your Answer: Placenta Increta
Explanation:Abnormal placental adherence to the uterus, generally termed Placenta Accreta, is divided into 3 conditions.
– Placenta accreta: refers to the invasion of the chorionic villi beyond the decidual surface of the myometrium.
– Placenta increta: the villi invade deep into the myometrium but spare the serosa;
– Placenta percreta: the chorionic villi invade through the myometrium, penetrate the uterine serosa, and may invade surrounding pelvic structures.These conditions can predispose patients to obstetric bleeding in the third trimester, often requiring emergency intervention.
Risk factors in the development of an abnormal placental adherence include previous c-sections. Placenta Previa, is also a cause of antepartum haemorrhage and serves as a risk factor in the development of abnormal placental adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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From which of the following spinal segments do both the internal and external anal sphincters receive their innervation?
Your Answer: S4
Explanation:The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle of the involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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During pregnancy which one of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?
Your Answer: Factor VII
Correct Answer: Platelet count
Explanation:In pregnancy, although it is a hypercoagulable state with an increase in clotting factors, the platelet count is decreased. Fibrinogen and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may be both increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?
Your Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.
Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:
Your Answer: Adenomyosis
Explanation:Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 8
Correct
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Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies?
Your Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CMV effects 1 in 200 pregnancies of which 30% will transmit the virus to the foetus and of which 30% foetus will be effected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella screen. They are as follows:
Your Answer: Immunity to Rubella
Correct Answer: Acute Rubella Infection
Explanation:IgM rise is typically seen with acute infection. IgG is produced in response to infection but is produced later than IgM. IgG is also produced in response to vaccination. If IgG and IgM are negative the patient is susceptible to Rubella infection. If IgG +ve and IgM -ve the patient should be considered immune. If IgM +ve this suggests acute infection or false positive IgM (not uncommon)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 26 year old women presents for her 12 week scan. She has been pregnant once before but had a 1st trimester miscarriage. She reports no problems with this pregnancy and has had no vaginal bleeding or spotting. The scan shows no fetal cardiac activity and a small gestational sac. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Missed Miscarriage
Explanation:As there has been no bleeding or expulsion of the products of conception this is a missed miscarriage
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on reflex liquid-based cytology, was positive for a young doctor from anearby hospital. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer: Do colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:On reflex liquid-based cytology, this patient had a cervical screening test that revealed HPV non-16 and 18 kinds, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. In a year, she should be provided a cervical screening test. If HPV non-16/18 kinds are discovered in 12 months, she will need a colposcopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerves
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The contents of the inguinal canal is the ilioinguinal nerves, the round ligament of uterus in the females and the spermatic cord with its contents in males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Normally, there will be a slight raise in prolactin level throughout pregnancy even despite estrogen stimulating and progesterone inhibiting prolactin secretion.
Serum alkaline phosphatase levels will be increased in pregnancy due to placental ALP.
During the first trimester of pregnancy there is a physiological mechanism by hCG causing cross-stimulation of the TSH receptors and as a result of this the concentration of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) normally decreases. During second trimester TSH concentration will again return back to its pre-pregnancy levels and then rises slightly by the third trimester. However, most of the changes still occur within the normal non-pregnant range, and the serum free T3 and T4 concentrations remain unchanged throughout pregnancy. But the total concentrations, which include both free and protein-bound fractions, elevates significantly due to an increase in the circulating binding globulins.
Iron binding capacity reflects transferrin, a protein used for iron transportation, which is a globulin found in the beta band on electrophoresis. To counteract the reduction of plasma iron during pregnancy both transferrin and iron binding capacity are elevated during this period.
When compared to the non-pregnant level, cortisol levels are been elevated up to three times than normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Treatment with acyclovir will reduce the rate of recurrent disease but is contraindicated in pregnancy because of adverse effects on the foetus.
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which is a false statement about endometriosis?
Your Answer: Laparoscopy is the best diagnostic test
Correct Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence
Explanation:Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!
This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.
All other options are true statements about endometriosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:
Your Answer: Early abortion
Explanation:Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?
Your Answer: Mucinous
Explanation:Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?
Your Answer: Proximal portion of urethra
Explanation:The deep perineal pouch contains the external urethral sphincter, proximal urethra in females and membranous urethra in males, deep transverse perineal muscles and the glands of cowper.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found: Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL) Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million) Motility 15% (>40%) Abnormal forms 95% (<60%) A second specimen three months later confirms the above results. Which would be the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).
Explanation:Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal. What is her most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.
Explanation:Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.
Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.
It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, has come with concerns that she might have endometriosis. She is concerned because she has a friend who recently was diagnosed with it. Which symptom profile would be expected if this woman actually has endometriosis?
Your Answer: Dyspareunia.
Correct Answer: No abnormal bleeding or pain.
Explanation:The clinical features of endometriosis include dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyschezia as well as infertility. Pain is characteristically long-term, cyclic (often occurring the same time as menses) and can get progressively worse over time. Laparoscopy remains the standard for diagnosis. There are many cases in which endometriosis is only discovered at the time of the workup for infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spine is the anatomical landmark for assessing the station of the fetal head and also placing pudendal nerve blocks. (the pudendal nerve runs posterior to the ischial spine). The ischial spine can be palpated approximately 8cm into the vagina, at 4 and 8 o’clock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following regarding the use of tocolytics is true?
Your Answer: Nifedipine is the only drug licensed in the UK for treatment of threatened preterm labour
Correct Answer: Use of a tocolytic drug is not associated with a clear reduction in perinatal or neonatal mortality, or neonatal morbidity
Explanation:Tocolytics are used to suppress contractions. The Canadian preterm labour trial which remains a very influential tocolytic trial to date concluded that tocolytics such as a beta agonist have no significant benefit on perinatal mortality or morbidity or prolong pregnancy to term however it did reduce the number of women delivering within 2 days by 40%. This 48 hour window is the only reason for the use of tocolytics.
Choice of tocolytic (NICE)
1st line: Nifedipine
2nd line: Oxytocin receptor antagonists e.g. atosiban -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Correct
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In which situation would you prescribe COCs?
Your Answer: A 20 year old woman with blood pressure 135/80mmHg
Explanation:Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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You are consenting a patient for a diagnostic hysteroscopy. What is the approximate risk of uterine perforation in diagnostic hysteroscopy?
Your Answer: 0.10%
Explanation:The risk of uterine perforation is 0.1% during therapeutic hysteroscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Correct
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A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy.
Explanation:This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.
The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid?
Your Answer: Inhibits fibrin
Correct Answer: Inhibits Plasminogen Activation
Explanation:Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic drug which is one of the treatment options in menorrhagia i.e. heavy menstrual bleeding. It acts by binding to the receptor sites on plasminogen thus preventing plasmin from attaching to those receptors thus inhibiting plasminogen activation.
If pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate NICE advise treatments should be considered in the following order:
1. levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) provided at least 12 months use is anticipated
2. tranexamic acid or NSAIDs* or combined oral contraceptives (COCs) or cyclical oral progestogens
3. Consider progesterone only contraception e.g. injected long-acting progestogens*When heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) coexists with dysmenorrhoea NSAIDs should be preferred to tranexamic acid. Also note NSAIDs and tranexamic are appropriate to use if treatment needed pending investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 30
Correct
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Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy
Explanation:Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 31
Correct
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Question 32
Correct
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Question 33
Correct
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The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Explanation:Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 34
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Inguinal nodes
Explanation:The lower vagina drains to the inguinal nodes where as the upper vagina drains to the internal and external iliacs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the following is associated with use of a tocolytic drug?
Your Answer: Prolongation of pregnancy for up to 72 hours
Correct Answer: Prolongation of pregnancy for up to 7 days
Explanation:The WHO recommends that tocolytics can safely be used to prolong pregnancy for up to seven days. The tocolytic drugs are used to suppress contractions to allow for more favourable conditions in the case of preterm labour, such as transfer to a better-equipped health care facility with a neonatal intensive care unit, or for those who have not yet completed a full dose of corticosteroids. It is not however associated with better neonatal outcomes in the imminent delivery of preterms. Examples of tocolytics include calcium channel blockers, magnesium sulphate, and oxytocin antagonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 36
Correct
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The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?
Your Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 37
Correct
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Which one of the following dimensions relates to the greatest diameter of the fetal head?
Your Answer: Occipitomental
Explanation:Occipitomental diameter is the greatest diameter of the fetal scalp and runs from chin to the prominent portion on the occiput. It measure about 12.5cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Your Answer: Genotype is 46 XX
Correct Answer: They have no uterus
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 39
Correct
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A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?
Your Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
Explanation:Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.
In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.
An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.
A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.
A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal. What is the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
Correct Answer: Cone biopsy
Explanation:If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to A&E with lower abdominal and unilateral flank pain. From the following list what is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ureteric Obstruction
Explanation:In stage III cervical cancer there is involvement of the pelvic wall and ureter which may result in abdominal pain and hydronephrosis.
2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
Stage
0 – Carcinoma in situ
1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
2B – Parametrial involvement
3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
4B – Distant Metastasis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria which has been going on for the past 3 days. The presence a pruritic, erythematous vulvar rash that is particularly painful during urination was also noted on the patient. Upon history taking, she mentioned that she is sexually active with one partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. Physical examination was done and the following are her results: Temperature is 38.7 deg C, Blood pressure is 120/80mmHg, Pulse is 84/min. Abdominal examination was done and revealed that there is suprapubic fullness. Upon pelvic examination, the presence of several tender ulcerated lesions with circular borders on the inside of the left labia minora were noted. Speculum examination revealed no cervical friability or mucopurulent discharge. There is also enlarged and tender left inguinal lymph nodes. Urethral catheterization was then performed due to difficulty with spontaneous voiding. The results of her urinalysis are as follows: Leukocyte esterase = positive, Nitrites = negative, Bacteria = none, White blood cells = 15/hpf. Her urine pregnancy test turned out negative. Which of the following tests will most likely be considered to establish the patient’s diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rapid plasma reagin testing for Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: Viral culture of lesion for herpes simplex virus
Explanation:While HSV-1 often affects the perioral region and can be known to cause genital lesions, HSV-2 is more commonly the consideration when patients present with genital lesions.
HSV-2 is transmitted through direct contact of sections in a seropositive individual who is actively shedding the virus. The virus preferentially affects the skin and mucous membranes with the virus invading epithelial cells on initial exposure and ultimately replicating intracellularly at that site.HSV-2, in particular, may present as a primary infection with painful genital ulcers, sores, crusts, tender lymphadenopathy, and dysuria. The classical features are of macular or papular skin and mucous membrane lesions progressing to vesicles and pustules that often last for up to 3 weeks. Genital lesions can be especially painful, leading to swelling of the vulva in women, burning pain, and dysuria.
Given that symptoms can mimic acute urinary tract infection, consider urinalysis and culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?
Your Answer: 39%
Correct Answer: 18%
Explanation:This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer: 90%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 45
Correct
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A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below: Pulse rate: 64 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg, Temperature: 36.8°C. On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min. Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia.
Explanation:In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.
An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.
In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.
A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past. On examination her vital signs seems to be normal. Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall.The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability.A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin. Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?
Your Answer: Blockage of the Bartholin gland duct
Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel
Explanation:Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina. Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease. Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation. Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.
Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage. However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.
Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.
Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Correct
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You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?
Your Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status
Explanation:Congenital rubella infection that occurs after 16 weeks gestation does not typically cause fetal abnormalities. This however plays no part in vaccination advice. Rubella vaccine is live and should not be given during pregnancy. The mother should be offered vaccination after giving birth. It is safe for the vaccine (typically given as combined MMR) to be administered if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 48
Correct
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A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?
Your Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Correct
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A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The bleeding was described to be heavier than ever compared with her previous periods. Upon interview, it was noted that her menstrual cycles was ranging from 4 to 6 weeks. A urine pregnancy test was performed and the result was positive. Upon vaginal examination, it was noted that her cervical os is closed. An endovaginal ultrasound was performed and the results showed an endometrial thickness of 12mm and an empty uterus. There was also clear adnexa, and no fluid in the pouch of Douglas was seen. A cyst in the corpus luteum of the left ovary was also noted. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis of the patient?
Your Answer: Complete abortion
Explanation:Complete abortion is defined as a ‘complete’ passage of all conception products.
The first day of the last menstrual period and findings on any prior ultrasounds should be determined to establish the gestational age and location of the pregnancy. An abdominal exam should be performed to assess for peritoneal signs that might indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy or extra-uterine extension of a septic abortion. Lastly, a pelvic exam is central to the evaluation of suspected miscarriage. It should include both speculum-facilitated visualization of the cervix and a bimanual examination to assess for cervical motion tenderness that may indicate a septic abortion or an adnexal mass that may herald ectopic pregnancy.
Early pregnancy loss takes many different forms. In missed abortion, there is asymptomatic or ‘missed’ death of the embryo or foetus without sufficient uterine contractions to push out the products of conception. In contrast, threatened abortion is characterized by symptomatic, ‘threatened’ expulsion of the products of conception, yet the cervical os remains closed, and the embryo or foetus remains viable.
Although there is a lack of consensus, complete abortion is often defined as the absence of a gestational sac on ultrasound with an endometrial stripe thickness of less than 30 mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation
Explanation:Radiotherapy works on the principle of ionisation. In particularly that of water leading to the formation of free radicals, these radicals are highly reactive and they react with the DNA leading to damage and cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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