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Question 1
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A 48-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of painful tingling over the lateral side of her left hand upon awakening in recent weeks. She also reports experiencing clumsiness in her hand. Upon examination, the doctor notes reduced sensation on the palmar aspects of her left thumb, index, and middle and ring fingers, leading to a suspicion of carpal tunnel syndrome. What clinical examination would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Opposition of the thumb with palpation of the thenar eminence
Correct Answer: Abduction of the thumb with palpation of the thenar eminence
Explanation:Testing for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Thumb Abduction and Thenar Eminence Palpation
When testing for carpal tunnel syndrome, one method involves abducting the thumb and palpating the thenar eminence, where the abductor pollicis brevis muscle is located. If this muscle cannot be palpated while the thumb is abducted, it suggests that the abduction is due to contraction of the abductor pollicis longus muscle only, which is supplied by the radial nerve. This indicates a possible issue with the median nerve, which can be compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand. Other testing methods, such as opposition of the thumb or palpation of the dorsal interossei muscle, are not as helpful in diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What are the characteristics of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
Your Answer: There is loss of pain sensation ipsilateral to the lesion
Correct Answer: There is loss of motor function ipsilateral to the lesion
Explanation:Brown-Sequard Syndrome
Brown-Sequard syndrome is a condition that results in the loss of motor function on one side of the body and the loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side. This syndrome is typically caused by a penetrating injury to the spinal cord. Despite the severity of the injury, Brown-Sequard syndrome has a relatively good prognosis compared to other incomplete spinal cord syndromes.
To summarise, Brown-Sequard syndrome is characterised by a specific set of symptoms that occur as a result of a spinal cord injury. While it can be a serious condition, it is important to note that it has a better prognosis than other incomplete spinal cord syndromes. the symptoms and causes of Brown-Sequard syndrome can help individuals better manage and cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: A Comparison
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.
Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.
Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.
Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.
Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
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A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident that occurred earlier in the day. He vaguely describes experiencing epigastric discomfort, followed by a tingling sensation down his arms and the scent of cooking bacon. Additionally, he reports feeling generally unwell. He did not lose consciousness during the episode. Upon further questioning, he mentions having experienced similar symptoms before. You observe that he has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and had a stroke four months ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Focal aware seizure
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Focal Aware Seizures
Focal aware seizures, also known as simple focal seizures or auras, are a type of seizure that do not result in loss of awareness. Patients may experience vague discomfort, unusual smells or tastes, tingling, or twitching in an arm or leg. It is important to note that these seizures can be a sign of another type of seizure to come. Risk factors include head trauma and previous stroke.
Malingering, or feigning symptoms for secondary gain, should be considered but is a diagnosis of exclusion. It is important to thoroughly investigate the patient’s symptoms before making this diagnosis.
Focal impaired awareness seizures, previously known as complex focal seizures, result in memory loss, loss of awareness, and automatic bodily movements. This is not the case for a patient with focal aware seizures.
Gastritis may be a differential due to the patient’s epigastric pain, but it does not fit with the other neurological symptoms.
Psychotic hallucinations should be considered but are less likely given the patient’s coherent description of events and lack of history or risk factors for mental illness.
In summary, when presented with a patient experiencing focal aware seizures, it is important to consider other neurological conditions before making a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Korsakoff’s dementia
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease
Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.
Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.
Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.
Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.
Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Diabetic neuropathy
Correct Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.
Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.Nocturnal Cramps:
Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.Diabetic Neuropathy:
Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing football. As a result, he is unable to extend his wrist and his hand hangs flaccidly. Which nerve is the most likely to have been damaged?
Your Answer: Median
Correct Answer: Radial
Explanation:The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and supply the upper limb. Damage to these nerves can occur due to trauma or compression at various points along their course. The radial nerve, which carries fibres from C5 to C8 and a sensory component from T1, can be injured in the axilla, upper arm, elbow or wrist. A lesion at the spiral groove of the humerus can result in a wrist drop. The musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, can be affected by damage to the shoulder and brachial plexus or compression by the biceps aponeurosis and tendon. The axillary nerve, which supplies the deltoid, teres minor and triceps brachii, can be injured in dislocations of the shoulder joint, compression of the axilla with a crutch or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. The median nerve, which innervates all of the flexors in the forearm except the flexor carpi ulnaris and that part of the flexor digitorum profundus that supplies the medial two digits, can be compressed in the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve, which supplies the little finger and the adjacent half of the ring finger, can be trapped in the cubital tunnel on the medial side of the elbow. Pinching of the ulnar nerve can cause paraesthesiae in the fourth and fifth digits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
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Which of the following indicates a psychiatric illness rather than an organic brain disorder?
Your Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness
Explanation:Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease
Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. It is important to distinguish between psychiatric and organic brain diseases in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.
According to Prof Anton Helman, a psychiatric emergency can be due to either disease or psychological illness. In order to determine the cause, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Medical mimics of psychotic symptoms can often be mistaken for psychiatric disease, making it crucial to consider all possible causes.
The NHS England’s Mental Health in Older People A Practice Primer emphasizes the importance of recognizing mental health issues in older individuals. While organic brain diseases are more common in this population, psychiatric diseases can also occur and should not be overlooked. By the typical features of psychiatric disease and differentiating them from organic brain disease, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot drop over two months. He also states that he has begun to drop objects that he was previously able to lift with ease and feels that both of his hands are constantly shaking. He does not have any other medical conditions. He recalls that his brother and father passed away from a neurological disease, of which he does not know the name.
Examination reveals bilateral lower limb weakness. There is hyperreflexia on examination of the knees and ankles. Plantars are upgoing. Examination of the upper limb is pertinent for left arm weakness, in particular in the median and ulnar nerve-innervated hand muscles. Sensation is normal in both upper and lower limbs. A diagnosis of motor neurone disease (MND) (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is being considered.
Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the life expectancy of this patient?Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Riluzole
Explanation:Riluzole is the only drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in patients with MND, although its exact mechanism of action is not fully understood. Studies have shown that patients who take riluzole have a lower mortality rate compared to those who do not, particularly those with bulbar-onset MND. However, riluzole may cause side effects such as liver damage, gastrointestinal discomfort, and, in rare cases, neutropenia. Baclofen can help manage spasticity in MND patients but does not improve life expectancy. Carbocisteine is a mucolytic that can reduce sputum viscosity and is often used in patients with bulbar symptoms, but it has not been shown to increase life expectancy. Citalopram can treat depression in MND patients but does not affect life expectancy. Memantine, an anti-glutamatergic agent used for severe Alzheimer’s disease, is not recommended for MND patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
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A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever and headache accompanied by a change in personality. During fundal examination, papilloedema is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe abscess
Explanation:Sinusitis and Brain Abscess
A previous occurrence of sinusitis can increase the likelihood of developing a brain abscess. Symptoms of a brain abscess include headache and fever, with papilloedema being present in most cases. Additionally, frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in personality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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