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  • Question 1 - According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the...

    Correct

    • According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the following?

      Your Answer: Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births

      Explanation:

      The World Health Organisation defines the maternal mortality ratio as the number of maternal deaths during a given period per 100,000 live births during the same period. This measure indicates the risk of death in a single pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower quadrant pain. Complaints started yesterday, as the patient noticed intermittent right lower abdominal pain associated with increased activity. She rested for remainder of the day, but the pain still continued to increase. An hour ago, the pain suddenly became constant and severe, associated with nausea and vomiting.The patient does not complaint of any radiation of pain. On examination patient's temperature is noted to be 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min.On palpation of the right lower quadrant there is tenderness without rebounding or guarding.Urine pregnancy test conducted came to be negative. Considering the following additional informations, which would be most appropriate in establishing the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Recent sick contacts

      Correct Answer: History of ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Common Risk factors for Ovarian torsion are presence of an ovarian mass, women who are in their reproductive age and history of infertility treatment with ovulation induction.
      Common clinical presentations include sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain along with nausea & vomiting and presence of a palpable adnexal mass. An adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow to ovary can be noted in ultrasound.
      Laparoscopy with detorsion, ovarian cystectomy and oophorectomy if necrosis or malignancy is found are the common treatment options.

      Acute lower abdominal pain in a nonpregnant women can have various causes including pathologies of the gastrointestinal, gynecologic, or urologic systems due to the close proximity of these structures. All of these cases have classic presentations which help to characterize the disease process and thereby to differentiate the diagnosis.

      In the given case, patient presents with right lower quadrant pain which is classic for ovarian torsion, occurring due to rotation of the ovary around the infundibulopelvic ligament, causing ovarian vessel occlusion.  Although ovarian torsion can occur in any women in their reproductive-age, is seen more commonly in those with a history of ovarian cysts (eg, hemorrhagic cyst) or masses (eg, mature cystic teratoma) because of the greater size and density of the ovary which makes it prone to rotation and subsequent torsion. Patients will initially have intermittent pain associated with activity, as in this patient, due to partial ovarian torsion, this initial pain resolves when the adnexa spontaneously untwists and blood flow returns. When this progresses to complete ovarian torsion, patients typically develop sudden-onset, severe, nonradiating pain due to persistent ischemia, which is often associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Ovarian torsion can be clinically diagnosed, but a Doppler ultrasound is performed to evaluate ovarian blood flow and also to confirm the diagnosis. Surgical detorsion to prevent ovarian necrosis and cystectomy/oophorectomy are the usual treatment options.

      Any association of urinary symptoms will help to establish a urologic cause of acute right lower quadrant pain like pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, etc.  However, patients with urologic conditions typically presents with suprapubic or flank pain which radiates to the right lower quadrant, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case.

      A family history of malignancy usually does not aid in the diagnosis of acute lower abdominal pain. Although some ovarian cancers are inherited, patients with ovarian cancer typically have a chronic, indolent course with associated weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal distension.

      Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can be a cause for lower abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have fever, constant and diffused pelvic pain along with rebound and guarding.

      Recent sick contacts are a risk factor for gastroenteritis, which can present with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. However, in this case patient will typically have diffuse, cramping abdominal pain which will worsen gradually; along with persistent vomiting and diarrhea.

      Ovarian torsion typically causes intermittent lower abdominal pain followed by sudden-onset of severe, nonradiating unilateral pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Ovarian torsion can occur in women in their reproductive-age, particularly those with a history of ovarian cysts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the mode of inheritance of beta Thalassemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of inheritance of beta Thalassemia?

      Your Answer: X-linked receive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Beta Thalassaemia is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm. Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?

      Your Answer: An OCP containing ethinylestradiol and norgestrel

      Correct Answer: Condoms

      Explanation:

      This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.

      It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.

      For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
      – Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
      – Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
      – A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic. At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?

      Your Answer: After day 18

      Correct Answer: Days 6-12

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Delayed puberty in girls is defined as? ...

    Incorrect

    • Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

      Your Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 15 years old

      Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old

      Explanation:

      Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills with high-dose oestrogen

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by: ...

    Incorrect

    • In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by:

      Your Answer: Regression

      Correct Answer: Atresia

      Explanation:

      During the ovulatory cycle, only one follicle will ovulate. The remaining non-ovulating follicles undergo disintegration. This process is known as atresia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of a pregnancy before 20 weeks in Australia?

      Your Answer: Mifepristone

      Correct Answer: Suction and curettage

      Explanation:

      Medical abortion is preferred from 4 to 9 weeks of gestation and in Australia, suction curettage is the most frequently used method of abortion as it is considered useful from 6 to 14 weeks of gestation.

      Mifepristone is a synthetic anti-progesterone, which is found to be effective for abortion when combined with misoprostol. There are evidences which suggest the effectiveness of misoprostol and mifepristone in both first and second trimesters. It is most commonly administered as a single dose of mifepristone followed by misoprostol, a prostaglandin, given orally or vaginally two days later. Prostaglandin can be repeated at an interval of 4 hours if required.
      As the vaginal use shows only few gastrointestinal side effects Misoprostol is more effective and better tolerated vaginally than orally. Misoprostol is not approved for its use in termination of pregnancy, but is available in the market due to its indications in other conditions.
      Methotrexate can be used orally or as an intramuscular injection followed by misoprostol up to seven days later, but this also is not a preferred method for termination of pregnancy in Australia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation. This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Rubella screen

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?

      Your Answer: The death of a women whilst pregnant or during labour

      Correct Answer: The death of a women whilst pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The WHO defines maternal death as female death from any cause related to pregnancy or its management, including childbirth or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy. This is irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      These are features of excess growth hormone i.e. Acromegaly. Down’s and Cri du chat typically cause Micrognathia (small jaw)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - When does ovulation occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • When does ovulation occur?

      Your Answer: After follicles ripened in the ovary

      Correct Answer: 36 hours after LH surge

      Explanation:

      Ovulation occurs in the mid stage of the menstrual cycle, usually 36 hours after the LH surge. It is this LH surge which is necessary for the ovulation to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      85
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?

      Your Answer: Norgeston®

      Correct Answer: Cerazette®

      Explanation:

      Traditional POP main mode of contraceptive action: thickening of cervical mucus Desogestrel-only POP main mode of contraceptive action is inhibition of ovulation Cerazette® is the only Desogestrel-only POP in the options above. Other desogestrel brands include: Aizea® Cerelle® Nacrez® The other POPs listed are considered traditional POPs and have the following compositions: Norgeston® – Levonorgestrel 30 mcg Micronor® & Noriday® – Norethisterone 350 mcg Femulen® – Ethynediol diacetate 500 mcg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
      Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.

      Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.

      Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
      Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
      Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
      The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
      Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
      All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizziness

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate is the main buffer in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Correct Answer: Pelvic Splanchnic

      Explanation:

      The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle or involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early. Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Painful abdominal bloating

      Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history. Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
      For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
      Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
      NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. It infects the mucous membrane of the genital tract epithelium in the endocervical and the urethral mucosa. Around 50% of the women are asymptomatic. However it presents as increase vaginal discharge, dysuria, proctitis and pelvic tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Bed rest

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 3rd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The maxillary arteries and the external carotid arteries develop from the first pharyngeal arch. The stapedial arteries arise from the second, the common carotid artery and the internal carotid arteries from the third and the arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery from the forth arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue. If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 3% weight loss

      Correct Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

      Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom.She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void. She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access.Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s.She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.” When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Correct

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin activates phospholipase C to produce inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), which releases Ca2+ from intracellular stores. There are thought to be other mechanisms by which myometrium is stimulated by Oxytocin including increased sensitisation of the myometrium and increased calcium entry into cells. cAMP and Protein Kinase A inhibit myometrial contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills. Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol orethindrone daily.Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days. Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications. Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then.Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently. On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable. Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.

      Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
      Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations.  Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.

      In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.

      Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.

      As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.

      Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.

      Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients.  Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell. Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods. She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today. On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination. There is no evidence of a pelvic mass. Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina. From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Administration of ergometrine.

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.

      Explanation:

      This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.

      The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.

      The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).

      If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.

      However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.

      Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Urine dip shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: >10 mg/mmol

      Correct Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Significant proteinuria = urinary protein:creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche. Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit. In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.

      A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.

      There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta previa

      Explanation:

      Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. According to her, she has been stressed recently and her usual menstrual period has been delayed by 4 weeks. Examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipstick for B-hCG

      Explanation:

      There is high possibility of her being pregnant. Urine B-hCG has to be checked to exclude pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina. Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode. Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago. She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure. Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.

      Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.

      Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL). Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia. Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix

      Explanation:

      When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.

      In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk for preeclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age between 18 and 40 years

      Explanation:

      Any new onset of hypertension associated with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously­ normotensive woman is referred to as Preeclampsia.
      Most commonly found risk factors for pre-eclampsia are:
      – Preeclampsia in a previous pregnancy
      – Family history of preeclampsia
      – a prior pregnancy with poor outcome like placental abruption, IUGR, fetal death in utero, etc
      – An interdelivery interval greater than 10 years
      – Nulliparity, increases risk by 8 times
      – Pre-existing chronic medical conditions or chronic hypertension
      – pre-existing or gestational Diabetes
      – chronic Renal disease
      – Thrombophilias g. protein C and S deficiency, antithrombin Ill deficiency, or Factor V Leiden mutation
      – Antiphospholipid syndrome
      – Systemic lupus erythematous
      – Maternal age greater than or equal to 40 years
      – Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than 30 kg/m2
      – Multiple pregnancy
      – Raised blood pressure at booking
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease
      – Fetal triploidy

      Maternal age between 18 and 40 years is found to be associated with a decreased risk for developing preeclampsia, and not an increased risk.
      NOTE– Previously, age 16 years or younger was thought to be a risk factor for developing preeclampsia; however, recent studies conducted had failed to establish any meaningful relationship between the two.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby. Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Chorioamnionitis is a complication of pregnancy caused by bacterial infection of the fetal amnion and chorion membranes. Group B Streptococcus is associated with chorioamnionitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine. The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
      Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
      It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.

      This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).

      PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
      Symptoms and their timing
      A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
      Symptoms
      B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
      1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
      2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
      3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
      4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
      C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
      1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
      2) Subjective concentration problems
      3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
      4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
      5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
      6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
      7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
      Severity
      D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
      E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
      Confirmation of the condition
      F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
      Other medical explanations are ruled out.
      G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
      The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
      Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 130/75. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Worsening hypertension

      Explanation:

      Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.

      COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.

      Explanation:

      Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
      Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
      This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months. What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following pubertal events is NOT mediated by gonadal oestrogen production?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pubertal events is NOT mediated by gonadal oestrogen production?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pubic hair growth

      Explanation:

      The role of androgens in the female includes acting as precursors for oestrogen production, anabolic effects, stimulation of axillary and pubic hair growth, sebum production, stimulation of bone formation, and stimulation of erythropoietin production in the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/4) 0%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Management (1/4) 25%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (2/8) 25%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Passmed