00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial...

    Incorrect

    • In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.21
      PaCO2 = 5.3 kPa
      HCO3 = 15

      Correct Answer: pH = 7.34
      PaCO2 = 7.2 kPa
      HCO3 = 29

      Explanation:

      During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.

      Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.

      An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.

      pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
      Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
      Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
      Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
      Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
      Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease. Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer: 97.50%

      Correct Answer: 95.40%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.

      Properties of the Normal distribution

      symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median

      68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean

      95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean

      99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

      Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
      the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.

      SD = square root (variance)

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes...

    Correct

    • A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine. Which of the following best explains the situation above?

      Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis

      Explanation:

      When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.

      Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.

      Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.

      Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.

      Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.

      The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The population incidence of a disease is best described by? ...

    Incorrect

    • The population incidence of a disease is best described by?

      Your Answer: The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment

      Correct Answer: The number of new cases of a disease per population in a defined period

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period.

      The prevalence of a disease is the number of cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period describes. It is NOT the number of new cases.

      The number of new cases of a disease only, has no denominator (time period or population) from which to derive an incidence.

      The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment is the incidence of patients seeking medical treatment NOT the incidence of the disease in a population.

      The death rate from a disease is the number of patients dying from the disease in a population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?

      Your Answer: Right ventricle

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).

      In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.

      Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.

      The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for...

    Correct

    • An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery. Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.

      The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long femoral line was inserted that passes from the common iliac vein into the inferior vena cava. At which level of vertebra does this occur?

      Your Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. This occurs at the L5 vertebral level. The IVC courses along the right anterolateral side of the vertebral column and ascends through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the T8 vertebral level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects...

    Incorrect

    • When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system: The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases, Lusitropy is accelerated, Dromotropy is increased, Chronotropy is increased, Inotropy increases, There is increased excitability of the conducting system. The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?

      Your Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by inhibition of phosphodiesterase III

      Correct Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein

      Explanation:

      A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.

      Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.

      Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.

      Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.

      The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.

      Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.

      The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape...

    Correct

    • A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%. The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered. What does this mean in terms of drug B?

      Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy

      Explanation:

      Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

      Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

      A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

      An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

      A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures. She...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures. She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy. What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment

      Explanation:

      Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.

      The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.

      NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.

      Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer: Peripheral venous infusion of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)

      Correct Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1

      Explanation:

      Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
      Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.

      Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.

      An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
      Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.

      GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion. Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?

      Your Answer: Angina with mild exertion

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:

      Age more than 70: 05 points

      History of myocardial infarction:

      Less than 6 months: 10 points
      More than 6 months: 5 points

      Angina Pectoris:

      Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points

      Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points

      Pulmonary Oedema:

      Within 7 days: 10 points
      At any time: 5 points

      Suspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area 30 points = high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer: 0.15 metre

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated. Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?

      Your Answer: Anterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).

      The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.

      The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
      The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
      The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
      The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant,...

    Correct

    • A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported: 165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044. In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?

      Your Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

      ARR= (0.157-0.126)

      ARR= 0.031

      NNT= 1/0.031

      NNT=32.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      93.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX). During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg. Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 2 METs

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of...

    Correct

    • When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:

      Your Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which vessel is the first to branch from the external carotid artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which vessel is the first to branch from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
      1. Superior thyroid artery
      2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      3. Lingual artery
      4. Facial artery
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

      The inferior thyroid artery is derived from the thyrocervical trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent...

    Incorrect

    • A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET). Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Neonate

      Explanation:

      The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
      3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosis

      Young children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.

      At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.

      When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.

      Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: 20 mg codeine

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (age + 4) 2 = weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:

      Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
      Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
      Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
      15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
      Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She was found collapsed on the street. She has visual and oculomotor deficits on examination, but her motor function is intact. A digital subtraction angiography is performed that shows occlusion of the basilar artery at the site where the vertebral arteries fuse to form the basilar artery. Which anatomical landmark corresponds to this site of occlusion?

      Your Answer: The base of the pons

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is a large vessel that is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the junction of the medulla and pons. It lies in the pontine cistern and follows a shallow groove on the ventral pontine surface, extending to the upper border of the pons.

      The basilar artery then bifurcates into the two posterior cerebral arteries that form part of the Circle of Willis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery. Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Two thirds of the way between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.

      The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.

      However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through...

    Incorrect

    • The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through the chambers of the heart and the pulmonary artery. Which of the following options best describes the sequence of pressures measured at the catheter's tip during its passage through a normal patient's pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer: 2-25 mmHg, 8-12 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg, and 0-12 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 0-12 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg and 8-12 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve allows the tip of a pulmonary artery catheter to pass through the right atrium and into the right ventricle.

      The balloon will be inflated before crossing the pulmonary valve and entering the pulmonary artery, where it will eventually wedge or occlude the artery, providing an indirect measure of left atrial pressure.

      0-12 mmHg in the right atrium
      2-25 mmHg in the right ventricle
      12-25 mmHg in the pulmonary artery
      8-12 mmHg is the occlusion pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      94.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic? Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?

      Your Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?...

    Correct

    • The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.

      There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).

      Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
      They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.

      Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.

      New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.

      Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Slow calcium influx

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2...

    Correct

    • A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia. On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait. Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:

      Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.

      Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.

      It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.

      The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.

      The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.

      Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma...

    Correct

    • Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?

      Your Answer: Heliox

      Explanation:

      Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:

      1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO‚‚ level of 94 98%.
      2. Use high-dose inhaled β‚‚ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
      intravenous β‚‚ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
      3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
      4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4€“6 hourly) to β‚‚ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β‚‚ agonist therapy.
      5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.

      A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.

      Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (2/6) 33%
Statistical Methods (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (5/5) 100%
Anatomy (7/9) 78%
Clinical Measurement (0/2) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/2) 0%
Passmed