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  • Question 1 - Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'? ...

    Correct

    • Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'?

      Your Answer: Erving Goffman

      Explanation:

      Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      432.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a medication that provides relief. She keeps the medication on hand and takes it as soon as the pain starts. What does this behavior demonstrate?

      Your Answer: Stimulus preparedness

      Correct Answer: Escape conditioning

      Explanation:

      Escape conditioning involves ending an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior, while avoidance conditioning involves avoiding the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's actions to their personality traits rather than external circumstances?

      Your Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      67.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend that broke up with her. Every time it is played she feels a deep sense of sadness. A classmate in her school often sings the song and the woman eventually finds herself feeling sad when she sees this classmate even when he no longer sings the song. This is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Correct Answer: Higher order conditioning

      Explanation:

      The original response is elicited by the song, which serves as the conditioned stimulus. Through higher order conditioning, the colleague becomes associated with the song and also elicits the original response.
      When a response conditioned to a specific stimulus occurs in response to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus, this is known as stimulus generalisation. For instance, if someone experiences fear after being stung by a bee (CS), they may also feel fearful towards other small flying insects due to their similarity to the conditioned stimulus.
      In the given scenario, the colleague is dissimilar to the song and therefore cannot be considered as a similar stimulus. Hence, higher order conditioning is the appropriate term to describe the process.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Who is credited with creating the term 'neurasthenia'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'neurasthenia'?

      Your Answer: Beard

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the approach of an Asian immigrant in England who practices his religion and cultural traditions at home but adapts well to the English language and culture at work?

      Your Answer: Integration

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      285
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - For what is Carl Jung most well-known? ...

    Correct

    • For what is Carl Jung most well-known?

      Your Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which type of stigma is referred to as discrimination? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of stigma is referred to as discrimination?

      Your Answer: Discredited stigma

      Correct Answer: Enacted stigma

      Explanation:

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The defining characteristic of virtue theory is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The defining characteristic of virtue theory is:

      Your Answer: The beliefs of an individual

      Correct Answer: The character of the person

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A student's parent complains about a teacher who they claim was too honest...

    Incorrect

    • A student's parent complains about a teacher who they claim was too honest with their child which caused them to become upset. The student had asked the teacher if they were doing well in the class to which the teacher replied that they were struggling and needed to improve their grades.
      In supervision with the principal, the teacher explained that they chose to be honest as they believe honesty is the best policy. They said they base this decision on the fact that if they were to lie, the student would not improve and would continue to struggle. They confirmed that they were aware that the student's response would be to become upset.
      Which of the following ethical approaches is most aligned to the teacher's decision making?

      Your Answer: Teleological

      Correct Answer: Deontological

      Explanation:

      The doctor’s decision is grounded in the moral righteousness of the act, rather than its consequences, and is therefore based on the principles of deontology, specifically the ‘categorical imperative’.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented? ...

    Correct

    • How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented?

      Your Answer: Mental illness is not a disease

      Explanation:

      Throughout his career, Szasz contended that mental illness is merely a metaphor for difficulties in human existence, and that mental illnesses lack the objective reality of physical ailments like cancer. He opposed many aspects of the contemporary psychiatric system in developed countries.

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of memory disturbance is linked to alcoholic blackouts?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Correct Answer: Anterograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar...

    Correct

    • The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar to the can opener is an example of:

      Your Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - How can primary process thinking be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can primary process thinking be described?

      Your Answer: Ego

      Correct Answer: Id

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      144.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - From which group did Lorenz develop his theory of aggression? ...

    Correct

    • From which group did Lorenz develop his theory of aggression?

      Your Answer: Birds

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - According to Holmes and Rahe, which stressful life event is considered the most...

    Correct

    • According to Holmes and Rahe, which stressful life event is considered the most stressful?

      Your Answer: Divorce

      Explanation:

      While it’s not necessary to memorize the precise sequence of all the stressful life events, it’s advisable to have knowledge of the order of the most significant three.

      Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)

      In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.

      The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.

      1. Death of spouse – 100
      2. Divorce – 73
      3. Marital separation – 65
      4. Jail term – 63
      5. Death of a close family member – 63
      6. Personal illness – 53
      7. Marriage – 50
      8. Being fired from work – 47
      9. Marital reconciliation – 45
      10. Retirement – 45

      This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents...

    Correct

    • A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents do for a living, they feel judged and treated differently. What is the term for this type of stigma?

      Your Answer: Courtesy stigma

      Explanation:

      Courtesy stigma, also known as stigma by association, is a genuine type of stigma that targets individuals who are connected to those with mental health issues, such as family members and healthcare providers. The remaining terms are not valid.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      130.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible...

    Correct

    • As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible for developing and upholding a person's ethical principles?

      Your Answer: The superego

      Explanation:

      According to Freud, the mind can be divided into three parts: the id, the ego, and the superego. The id is a collection of instinctual drives that are not organized and are controlled by the primary process. The id lacks the ability to delay of modify these instinctual drives that an infant is born with. The ego operates in all three dimensions of the mind: conscious, preconscious, and unconscious. The ego is responsible for logical and abstract thinking, as well as verbal expression in the conscious and preconscious parts of the mind. The superego is responsible for creating and maintaining an individual’s moral conscience based on a complex system of values and ideals that are internalized from parents. The terms unconscious and preconscious refer to Freud’s model of the mind, which includes the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      61.2
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  • Question 19 - What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations...

    Incorrect

    • What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations in the body?

      Your Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Correct Answer: James-Lange theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.4
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  • Question 20 - What is the procedure that entails administering the hepatitis virus to individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the procedure that entails administering the hepatitis virus to individuals with learning disabilities who are in good health?

      Your Answer: Milgram experiments

      Correct Answer: Willowbrook study

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Can you identify a personality test that assesses qualities rather than quantities? ...

    Correct

    • Can you identify a personality test that assesses qualities rather than quantities?

      Your Answer: Thematic Apperception Test

      Explanation:

      The Thematic Apperception Test is a personality test that falls under the category of projective tests, which involve describing rather than measuring a specific aspect.

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.6
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  • Question 22 - Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs. ...

    Correct

    • Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs.

      Your Answer: Contradictory to an individual's beliefs

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding what topic is the Declaration of Tokyo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding what topic is the Declaration of Tokyo?

      Your Answer: The health of children

      Correct Answer: The torture of prisoners

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      319.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A child is walking down a dimly lit hallway. They hear creaking floorboards,...

    Incorrect

    • A child is walking down a dimly lit hallway. They hear creaking floorboards, their heart starts to race, and their breathing becomes heavier. Simultaneously, they feel scared. Which theory of emotion does this align with?

      Your Answer: James-Lange theory

      Correct Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Explanation:

      The Lazarus theory and the attribution theory share similarities.

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 25 - An adolescent boy attends a counseling session for an assessment. His school counselor...

    Correct

    • An adolescent boy attends a counseling session for an assessment. His school counselor believes him to be struggling with identity issues and in need of support.
      He is accompanied by his mother who shares that they recently moved to the United States from Mexico. From his mother, you learn that he has been struggling to fit in with his peers and feels disconnected from his Mexican heritage. He has been trying to adopt American customs and has been avoiding speaking Spanish.
      Which approach to acculturation is implied?

      Your Answer: Separation

      Explanation:

      She has maintained her home culture and not assimilated into the dominant culture, which is known as separation.

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      87.2
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  • Question 26 - Who is credited with creating the term 'dementia praecox'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'dementia praecox'?

      Your Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      The origin of the term dementia praecox is a topic of controversy. While some sources credit Kraepelin with popularizing the term, others argue that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was coined by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College has chosen to attribute the term to Kraepelin. Therefore, if the question refers to demence precoce, the answer should be Morel, and if it refers to dementia praecox, Kraepelin should be selected.

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.7
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  • Question 27 - Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case? ...

    Correct

    • Which topic is associated with the Tarasoff case?

      Your Answer: Confidentiality

      Explanation:

      Tarasoff Case: Mental Health Professionals’ Duty to Protect

      The Tarasoff case was brought before the Supreme Court of California, which ruled that mental health professionals have a responsibility to safeguard individuals who are at risk of physical harm from a patient. This decision has significant implications for the issue of confidentiality in mental health treatment. The court’s ruling establishes that the duty to protect supersedes the duty to maintain confidentiality in situations where a patient poses a threat to others. This case highlights the importance of mental health professionals’ obligation to balance their ethical responsibilities with the safety of their patients and the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.9
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  • Question 28 - The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following?

      Your Answer: Duty to warn

      Explanation:

      The therapists in the Tarasoff case were faulted for placing greater importance on maintaining the patient’s confidentiality, thereby prioritizing the principle of beneficence over the rights of the potential victim. As a result, they were deemed to have failed in their duty to consider the principle of non-maleficence.

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      274
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  • Question 29 - Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?...

    Correct

    • Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?

      Your Answer: The influence of the relationship between and individual and the society

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the situation where a mental health nurse assumes that a patient is lazy because of their weight?

      Your Answer: Halo effect

      Explanation:

      The Halo Effect: How One Perception Influences Another

      The halo effect is a cognitive bias that occurs when our perception of one characteristic of a person of object is influenced by our perception of another. This means that if we perceive someone as attractive, we may also assume that they are intelligent of kind, even if we have no evidence to support these assumptions. The halo effect can have a significant impact on our judgments and decisions, as it can lead us to make assumptions based on limited information. It is important to be aware of this bias and to try to make judgments based on objective criteria rather than subjective perceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 31 - How many levels did Maslow's original model of needs include? ...

    Correct

    • How many levels did Maslow's original model of needs include?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 32 - Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective...

    Correct

    • Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective in treating borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Otto Kernberg

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 33 - What is the process of partially assimilating into a new culture while still...

    Incorrect

    • What is the process of partially assimilating into a new culture while still maintaining aspects of one's own culture called?

      Your Answer: Assimilation

      Correct Answer: Acculturation

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Culture and its Impact on Individuals

      Culture plays a vital role in society by providing consistency and organization to its patterns and components over generations. It helps to manage diversity and balance the forces of stability and conformity with those of change and innovation. By classifying phenomena into categories such as good and bad, right and wrong, healthy and sick, and desirable and undesirable, culture provides individuals with behavioral guidelines and an interpretation of life events.

      When adults, such as migrants of refugees, fully adopt the culture of a host society and lose their own cultural identity, they are said to be assimilated. However, in acculturation, individuals take on some aspects of the host culture while retaining their own cultural identity.

      Culture is learned through various means, including contact with family, friends, classmates, teachers, significant persons, and the media. This process is known as enculturation.

      Accommodation refers to the reconciliation of differences, while sojourning involves staying as a temporary resident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 34 - Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six...

    Correct

    • Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six basic emotions?

      Your Answer: Relief

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.7
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  • Question 35 - Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality?

      Your Answer: Ego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 36 - Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention? ...

    Correct

    • Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention?

      Your Answer: Treisman

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.8
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  • Question 37 - Which of the following is associated with the anti-psychiatry movement? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is associated with the anti-psychiatry movement?

      Your Answer: Szasz

      Explanation:

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.6
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  • Question 38 - What type of personality test is projective in nature? ...

    Correct

    • What type of personality test is projective in nature?

      Your Answer: Thematic Apperception Test

      Explanation:

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:

      Your Answer: Cohesiveness

      Correct Answer: Pairing

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.8
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  • Question 40 - Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but...

    Correct

    • Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but were still not provided with it?

      Your Answer: Tuskegee experiment

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      173
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based...

    Correct

    • What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based on Thomas and Chess's research?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 42 - Who is responsible for introducing the concept of 'Filter Theory' in the context...

    Correct

    • Who is responsible for introducing the concept of 'Filter Theory' in the context of selective attention?

      Your Answer: Broadbent

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the...

    Correct

    • What is the life event that Holmes and Rahe consider to be the most stressful?

      Your Answer: Death of a spouse

      Explanation:

      Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)

      In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.

      The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.

      1. Death of spouse – 100
      2. Divorce – 73
      3. Marital separation – 65
      4. Jail term – 63
      5. Death of a close family member – 63
      6. Personal illness – 53
      7. Marriage – 50
      8. Being fired from work – 47
      9. Marital reconciliation – 45
      10. Retirement – 45

      This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 44 - Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs? ...

    Correct

    • Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs?

      Your Answer: Maslow

      Explanation:

      Maslow proposed a hierarchy of needs that must be met for an individual to achieve self-actualization, starting with basic physiological needs such as hunger and thirst. Allport and Odbert focused on studying individuals and their unique traits, rather than groups. Kelly developed the phenomenological approach and personal construct theory. Rogers believed in the inherent self-knowledge and rationality of all humans and is known for his work in client-centered therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.4
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  • Question 45 - What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike? ...

    Incorrect

    • What guidance is provided for doctors treating individuals on hunger strike?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Tokyo

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Malta

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 46 - What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite...

    Incorrect

    • What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite their potential danger?

      Your Answer: Counterconditioning

      Correct Answer: Stimulus preparedness

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      42
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  • Question 47 - How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated? ...

    Correct

    • How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated?

      Your Answer: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence and Justice

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.5
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  • Question 48 - You are sitting in class during a test. You realize you forgot to...

    Incorrect

    • You are sitting in class during a test. You realize you forgot to study and you feel anxious. Which emotional theory best explains this experience?

      Your Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Correct Answer: Lazarus theory

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the Lazarus theory, which proposes that emotions are the result of cognitive appraisal of a situation. According to this theory, the thought I’m being burgled triggers a cognitive appraisal of the situation, which in turn leads to the emotional response of fear. This is in contrast to the Singer-Schachter theory, which suggests that emotions are the result of a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal.

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      54.2
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  • Question 49 - Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'?

      Your Answer: Hecker

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What is the approach to multiculturalism that the council member is advocating for...

    Correct

    • What is the approach to multiculturalism that the council member is advocating for when explaining the emergence of the Polish shops and restaurants in the local town?

      Your Answer: Laissez-faire

      Explanation:

      Cultural pluralism is present in situations where there is a notable amount of diversity, whether it is intentional or unintentional.

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.3
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  • Question 51 - Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry movement, and is recognized for his statement that 'Madness does not necessarily have to be a complete breakdown, but can also be a breakthrough'?

      Your Answer: Szasz

      Correct Answer: Laing

      Explanation:

      Apart from Bleuler who is Swiss, all the other psychiatrists in the list of options are German – Kraepelin and…

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.9
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  • Question 52 - Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective? ...

    Correct

    • Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective?

      Your Answer: Esyenck personality test

      Explanation:

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - What is one of the main skills proposed by Thurstone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the main skills proposed by Thurstone?

      Your Answer: Processing speed

      Correct Answer: Word fluency

      Explanation:

      All the other choices are components of the WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale).

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.4
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  • Question 54 - What is the alternate name for the theory that is commonly referred to...

    Correct

    • What is the alternate name for the theory that is commonly referred to as the two factor theory?

      Your Answer: Singer-Schachter theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.9
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  • Question 55 - Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?

      Your Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

      Correct Answer: HLA testing

      Explanation:

      In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 56 - What is proposed by the theory of the bystander effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is proposed by the theory of the bystander effect?

      Your Answer: People of the same race are more likely to help each other than those of different races

      Correct Answer: A small number of witnesses predicts a higher chance of intervention

      Explanation:

      The Bystander Effect: Theory and Examples

      The bystander effect, also known as the Genovese effect, suggests that the likelihood of someone helping in a situation is inversely related to the number of people present. This means that a person is more likely to help if there are fewer witnesses. The term Genovese effect comes from the case of Kitty Genovese, who was sexually assaulted and killed in front of a large apartment building. Despite 38 neighbors hearing her screams, no one called the police. However, the facts of this story have been largely shown to be inaccurate.

      Bystanders are less likely to help if there are many other people present, if the perpetrator is present, if the costs of intervention are physical, and if the situation is perceived as dangerous. On the other hand, bystanders are more likely to help if they are male and if they know the person in need of help. Overall, the bystander effect has been shown to be a valid concept, as demonstrated by research studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main focus of behavioural activation therapy?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression

      Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.

      Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).

      In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 58 - Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'? ...

    Correct

    • Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'?

      Your Answer: Koch

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 59 - Which neo-Freudian theorists are linked to the concepts of anima and animus? ...

    Correct

    • Which neo-Freudian theorists are linked to the concepts of anima and animus?

      Your Answer: Carl Jung

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      46
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  • Question 60 - In what type of conditioning does a GP advise a patient to view...

    Correct

    • In what type of conditioning does a GP advise a patient to view a picture of lung cancer every time they smoke a cigarette to help them quit smoking?

      Your Answer: Aversive conditioning

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17.5
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  • Question 61 - How can a form of cultural assimilation be described? ...

    Correct

    • How can a form of cultural assimilation be described?

      Your Answer: Melting pot

      Explanation:

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of...

    Correct

    • What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of interests as a result?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 63 - In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under? ...

    Correct

    • In the OPCS classification, which social class does semi-skilled work fall under?

      Your Answer: Social class IV

      Explanation:

      Occupational Classification:

      The Office of Population Censuses and Surveys has developed a social and occupational classification system that categorizes individuals based on their employment status and level of skill. The system includes six social classes, ranging from unemployed of student (social class 0) to professional (social class I).

      Social class I includes individuals who hold professional positions, such as doctors, lawyers, and engineers. These individuals typically have advanced degrees and specialized training in their field.

      Social class II includes intermediate positions, such as managers, supervisors, and technicians. These individuals may have some level of specialized training of education, but not to the same extent as those in social class I.

      Social class III includes skilled, manual, of clerical positions, such as electricians, mechanics, and administrative assistants. These individuals have a high level of skill in their field and may require some level of training of certification.

      Social class IV includes semi-skilled positions, such as factory workers, machine operators, and retail salespeople. These individuals may have some level of training of experience, but not to the same extent as those in social class III.

      Social class V includes unskilled positions, such as laborers, cleaners, and agricultural workers. These individuals typically do not require any specialized training of education and may perform manual labor of basic tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 64 - Identify the option that represents a secondary reinforcer. ...

    Correct

    • Identify the option that represents a secondary reinforcer.

      Your Answer: Money

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 65 - In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?...

    Incorrect

    • In what field of medicine is the concept of 'therapeutic privilege' commonly used?

      Your Answer: Romantic relationships between doctors and patients

      Correct Answer: Informed consent

      Explanation:

      Professionalism and UK Regulation

      Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.

      In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 66 - Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'?

      Your Answer: Utilitarianism

      Correct Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 67 - What is the term used in psychodynamic theory to describe the process of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used in psychodynamic theory to describe the process of internalizing cultural norms and values primarily acquired from parents?

      Your Answer: Preconscious

      Correct Answer: Superego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      106.1
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  • Question 68 - How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Helsinki

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Lisbon

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 69 - Who is recognized as the originator of the Cognitive Neoassociation Theory of Aggression?...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recognized as the originator of the Cognitive Neoassociation Theory of Aggression?

      Your Answer: Bandura

      Correct Answer: Berkowitz

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 70 - Which theory can be used to explain the process of a boy overcoming...

    Incorrect

    • Which theory can be used to explain the process of a boy overcoming his fear of a new dog through repeated exposure while being comforted by his mother?

      Your Answer: Trace conditioning

      Correct Answer: Reciprocal inhibition

      Explanation:

      The child’s ability to confront his fear is facilitated by his relaxation while sitting with his mother, which exemplifies the use of reciprocal inhibition in systematic desensitization.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.6
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  • Question 71 - What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities? ...

    Incorrect

    • What study intentionally gave hepatitis to children with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Tuskegee Studies

      Correct Answer: Willowbrook Study

      Explanation:

      The Willowbrook School Study was conducted in a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York during the 1960s. The study involved inoculating healthy children with hepatitis and administering gamma globulin to assess its potential to treat the disorder.

      The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a controversial follow-up study of people with syphilis. Many participants were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment, even though it became available halfway through the study. The Belmont report introduced changes to US law on research ethics as a result of this study.

      The Stanford prison experiment involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. Participants were assigned as either a prison of a guard and were given no guidelines for how to behave. Within two days, the participants began to act out their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and sometimes cruel to the prisoners. The study was terminated after only six days due to extreme emotional reactions from some of the prisoners.

      The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys hanging around public toilets where men meet to have sex in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it. The method was controversial as he never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watch queen’, raising issues of informed consent in research.

      Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience. Participants were assigned the role of teacher and administered fake shocks to a confederate playing the learner. Despite expressing concern, 30% of participants continued to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The study raised concerns for the wellbeing of participants, but Milgram decided not to terminate it as prior participants seemed to recover relatively well.

      Beecher’s Study

      Beecher’s study revealed more than 20 instances where individuals were subjected to experimentation without being fully informed of their participation in research and the potential risks involved. One of the cases cited was the Willowbrook State School study, where children with mental disabilities were intentionally infected with hepatitis under the guise of a vaccination program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Who is credited with creating the term 'psychiatry'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'psychiatry'?

      Your Answer: Reil

      Explanation:

      Johann Reil is credited with coining the term ‘psychiatry’ in 1808.

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which processes involve the activation of incentive salience?

      Your Answer: Amnesia

      Correct Answer: Grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief

      Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.

      Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What was the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's original experiments on classical conditioning with...

    Incorrect

    • What was the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's original experiments on classical conditioning with dogs?

      Your Answer: Hearing a bell

      Correct Answer: Seeing food

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pairs of instincts proposed by Freud are correct?

      Your Answer: Thanatos and eros

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2226
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'?

      Your Answer: Erik Erikson

      Correct Answer: Donald Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What is a true statement about failures in memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about failures in memory?

      Your Answer: Symptoms of PTSD are an illustration of transience

      Correct Answer: Blocking can occur with both semantic and episodic memory

      Explanation:

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - What is the term for a neutral stimulus that becomes associated with an...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term for a neutral stimulus that becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: A phobia

      Correct Answer: A conditioned stimulus

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      141.1
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Who wrote the first book on medical ethics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who wrote the first book on medical ethics?

      Your Answer: Thomas Percival

      Correct Answer: Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi

      Explanation:

      Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi tackled ethical concerns in the field of medicine in his work, Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), during the 9th century.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about theories concerning selective attention is accurate?

      Your Answer: Deutsch and Deutsch proposed an early stage model

      Correct Answer: Late selection models argue that information is selected after processing for meaning

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      24.4
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  • Question 81 - To encourage their children to do their chores, a family offers a reward...

    Correct

    • To encourage their children to do their chores, a family offers a reward system. Each child receives a reward after completing a certain number of chores. The number of chores they need to complete varies, but each child knows that the more chores they complete, the more likely they are to receive the reward. The family sets the number of chores needed for a reward between 3 to 8 chores, and this changes every week. What type of reinforcement schedule does the family use?

      Your Answer: Variable ratio

      Explanation:

      The appropriate reinforcement schedule for the given scenario is variable ratio. This is because there is a certain pattern to the reinforcement, which is dependent on the number of sales made by the staff. It cannot be a random schedule as there is a specific criterion for receiving the bonus. Additionally, it cannot be an interval schedule as the staff must make a certain number of sales to receive the bonus. If the number of sales required was fixed, it would be a fixed ratio schedule.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      25.9
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  • Question 82 - In which area of memory is a patient with dementia experiencing difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • In which area of memory is a patient with dementia experiencing difficulty in recalling the specifics of their wedding?

      Your Answer: Working

      Correct Answer: Episodic

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 83 - A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led...

    Incorrect

    • A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led to their suspension, they argue that it was due to external factors and that they were not entirely responsible for their actions. However, the disciplinary panel disagrees and places more emphasis on the student's personal traits, such as their lack of self-control and tendency towards defiance.

      What is suggested by the perspective of the disciplinary panel?

      Your Answer: Self-serving bias

      Correct Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate explanation for this scenario is the fundamental attribution error. It is important to note that this is distinct from the actor-observer bias, which requires evidence of a difference in how situational factors are considered for others versus ourselves. The actor-observer bias typically involves overemphasizing personality traits for others’ behaviors and situational factors for our own behaviors.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 84 - Which ethical theory is attributed to Bentham and Mill as its main founders?...

    Correct

    • Which ethical theory is attributed to Bentham and Mill as its main founders?

      Your Answer: Utilitarianism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 70 year old man presents at the memory clinic with his wife,...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old man presents at the memory clinic with his wife, reporting an inability to form new memories for the past 8 months following a head injury sustained in a fall. Which brain structure do you suspect has been affected?

      Your Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      The frontal lobe contains the prefrontal gyrus and gyrus rectus, while the midbrain floor is composed of the tegmentum. Additionally, the hippocampus, which is crucial for memory, is located within the medial temporal lobe.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.6
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  • Question 86 - A teenager, whose father died in car accident 4 months ago, expresses that...

    Correct

    • A teenager, whose father died in car accident 4 months ago, expresses that he is feeling down, he is hesitant to ride in cars, and he perceives his father in his house at night despite knowing that this encounter is not genuine. What type of grief is indicated?

      Your Answer: Normal grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.6
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  • Question 87 - What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma? ...

    Correct

    • What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma?

      Your Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Goffman’s work focused extensively on stigma, while Cerletti is known for his contributions to the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and Moniz is associated with the development of frontal lobotomy.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 88 - The grandson of a man with Alzheimer's disease has observed that his grandfather...

    Correct

    • The grandson of a man with Alzheimer's disease has observed that his grandfather has difficulty remembering recent events but can recall memories from his youth with clarity. Which law supports this observation?

      Your Answer: Ribot's Law

      Explanation:

      Ribot’s Law is the only law among the options provided, the others are non-existent.

      Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting

      Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.

      Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.9
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  • Question 89 - Which one of these options is not a principle of Gestalt psychology? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these options is not a principle of Gestalt psychology?

      Your Answer: Proximity

      Correct Answer: Approximation

      Explanation:

      Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization

      Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included...

    Incorrect

    • Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included in the list.

      Your Answer: Fight-flight

      Correct Answer: Dynamic shift

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.1
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  • Question 91 - A child called Jack has developed a fear of dogs after he was...

    Incorrect

    • A child called Jack has developed a fear of dogs after he was chased by a dog in the park. The parent addresses this by exposing Jack to a friendly dog. Initially Jack reacted nervously and cried at the sight of the dog but over a period of 15 minutes, he settled in the company of this dog.

      What could be the reason for the improvement in Jack's fear of dogs?

      Your Answer: Selective abstraction

      Correct Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      In psychology, the spacing effect suggests that humans are more likely to remember of learn items in a list when they are studied a few times over a long period of time (spaced presentation) rather than repeatedly in a short period of time, which is known as massed practice.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief?

      Your Answer: Reorganization

      Correct Answer: Bargaining

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - What is the most accurate definition of the term 'flashbulb memory'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate definition of the term 'flashbulb memory'?

      Your Answer: Extensive recall of visual memory also termed 'photographic memory'

      Correct Answer: Detailed recollections of the context in which people first heard about an important event

      Explanation:

      Flashbulb Memory

      Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      23.6
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  • Question 94 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer: Attachment behaviour

      Correct Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.4
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  • Question 95 - A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having...

    Correct

    • A child is unable to describe the function of a microwave despite having used one many times in the past. Which area of memory do you suspect is dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Semantic

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to the patient’s comprehension of the microwave’s purpose (semantic memory), rather than their ability to operate it (procedural memory).

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      70.5
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  • Question 96 - Who is recognized as the originator of the frustration-aggression hypothesis regarding aggression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recognized as the originator of the frustration-aggression hypothesis regarding aggression?

      Your Answer: Bushman

      Correct Answer: Dollard

      Explanation:

      Dollard’s frustration-aggression hypothesis was the precursor to Berkowitz’s model, which posits that aggression arises from the inhibition of frustration of an individual’s goal-directed behavior.

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A teacher in a school district instructs a young student to cheat on...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher in a school district instructs a young student to cheat on a test to maintain high grades. The student initially resists but eventually complies when the teacher threatens to give them a failing grade. What type of power has the teacher exerted in this situation?

      Your Answer: Legitimate

      Correct Answer: Coercive

      Explanation:

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Under which category of memory is priming classified? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under which category of memory is priming classified?

      Your Answer: Semantic memory

      Correct Answer: Nondeclarative memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - How is clinical research currently guided worldwide in terms of ethical recommendations? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is clinical research currently guided worldwide in terms of ethical recommendations?

      Your Answer: Tuskegee code

      Correct Answer: Helsinki declaration

      Explanation:

      The Significance of the Declaration of Helsinki in Biomedical Research Ethics

      The Declaration of Helsinki, created by the World Medical Association in 1964, outlines the fundamental ethical principles that govern biomedical research involving human subjects. Over the years, it has undergone several revisions and continues to serve as a cornerstone of good medical practice. Its importance lies in its ability to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in research, ensuring that the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects are protected. The Declaration of Helsinki is a crucial document that guides researchers, clinicians, and policymakers in their efforts to conduct ethical and responsible research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact?

      Your Answer: Attachment

      Correct Answer: Temperament

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.5
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  • Question 101 - Who is credited with creating the term 'manic depression'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'manic depression'?

      Your Answer: Bleuler

      Correct Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to put in less effort when working in a group compared to when working individually?

      Your Answer: Deindividuation

      Correct Answer: Social loafing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Social Loafing

      Social loafing is a common phenomenon that occurs when people work in groups. It refers to the tendency of individuals to exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone. This can be attributed to the diffusion of responsibility, where individuals feel less accountable for their actions when working in a group. As a result, they may not put in as much effort as they would if they were working alone. Social loafing can have negative consequences for group performance, as it can lead to a lack of motivation and a decrease in productivity. Therefore, it is important to understand the causes of social loafing and take steps to prevent it from occurring in group settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?...

    Incorrect

    • What strategies can be used to distinguish between normal grief and major depression?

      Your Answer: Anhedonia

      Correct Answer: Generalised guilt

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - What is the term used in classical conditioning to describe an unlearned, inborn...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used in classical conditioning to describe an unlearned, inborn reaction to an unconditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: A conditioned response

      Correct Answer: An unconditioned response

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.5
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  • Question 105 - As a therapist, you are working with a child and attempting to understand...

    Correct

    • As a therapist, you are working with a child and attempting to understand their attribution model when they say, My teacher always makes me do things I don't want to do. To establish the consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness of their conceptual framework, you ask further questions. Which attribution theory are you utilizing in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Kelley's Theory of Causal Attributions

      Explanation:

      Kelley’s Theory of Causal Attributions proposes that to accurately attribute a behavior, one must consider three types of causal information: consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness. Naïve psychology emphasizes the role of intentional concepts in interpreting behavior, while theory of mind is a cognitive ability that develops around age 4 and involves understanding intentional states like beliefs and desires. Correspondent inference theory suggests that people make dispositional inferences based on others’ behaviors, focusing on those that provide the most information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Who authored the book 'The Myth of Mental Illness'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who authored the book 'The Myth of Mental Illness'?

      Your Answer: Cooper

      Correct Answer: Szasz

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Who is credited with creating the term 'schizoaffective disorder'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'schizoaffective disorder'?

      Your Answer: Kahlbaum

      Correct Answer: Kasanin

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      325.9
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of reinforcing progressively more accurate attempts towards a desired behavior?

      Your Answer: Generalisation

      Correct Answer: Shaping

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer: Source amnesia is the loss of memory about one specific event

      Correct Answer: In anterograde amnesia, long-term memories before the amnesia remain intact

      Explanation:

      Long-term memories prior to anterograde amnesia are unaffected, as the condition only affects the formation of new memories. Unfortunately, amnesia cannot be treated as it involves damage to neurons. Lacunar amnesia refers to the loss of memory for a specific event, with the term lacuna meaning a gap of missing part in Latin. Retrograde amnesia typically involves damage to structures in the medial temporal lobe, such as the hippocampus, rather than the cerebellum. Source amnesia is characterized by the inability to recall the context in which previously learned information was acquired, while still retaining the factual knowledge.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      46.9
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  • Question 110 - Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Superego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      141.4
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?

      Your Answer: Tom Main

      Correct Answer: George Brown

      Explanation:

      The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Can you provide an accurate definition of social capital? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you provide an accurate definition of social capital?

      Your Answer: The resources that society invests into maintaining the health of the general population

      Correct Answer: Features of social life, networks, norms, and trust that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives

      Explanation:

      Social Capital: An Explanation for Inequalities in Morbidity and Mortality

      The concept of social capital may provide insight into the observed disparities in morbidity and mortality based on occupational social class and material standard of living (McKenzie 2002). Social capital is considered the binding force of society, and it is believed that groups lacking in social capital may be at higher risk for mental illness.

      Social capital is defined as the features of social life – networks, norms, and trust – that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives (Putnam, 1996). It is a characteristic of groups rather than individuals and can be divided into structural and cognitive components. Structural social capital includes roles, rules, behaviors, networks, and institutions that bond individuals in groups, bridge divides between societal groups, of vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion. Cognitive social capital refers to the values, attitudes, and beliefs that produce cooperative behavior (Colletta & Cullen, 2000).

      In summary, social capital may offer an explanation for the observed inequalities in morbidity and mortality by occupational social class and material standard of living. It is a property of groups and can be broken down into structural and cognitive components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - What accurately describes John Bowlby's depiction of the grief process? ...

    Incorrect

    • What accurately describes John Bowlby's depiction of the grief process?

      Your Answer: It involves 6 stages

      Correct Answer: Stage 3 is characterised by disorganisation and typically lasts several months

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Which factor was not identified as a vulnerability for depression by Brown and...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor was not identified as a vulnerability for depression by Brown and Harris?

      Your Answer: Three of more children under the age of 14 at home

      Correct Answer: Significant accumulation of debt resulting in threat of eviction

      Explanation:

      Depression (Brown and Harris)

      In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.5
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  • Question 115 - The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following?

      Your Answer: That participating in violent sports such as boxing can provide a means of discharging feelings of anger

      Explanation:

      The Catharsis Hypothesis and Its Effectiveness in Reducing Aggressive Feelings

      The catharsis hypothesis proposes that individuals can release their feelings of frustration and aggression through indirect means, such as engaging in aggressive activities like boxing of venting their emotions through talking. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of these methods in reducing aggressive feelings over the long term.

      Some individuals believe that engaging in physical activities like boxing can help release pent-up aggression and reduce the likelihood of future aggressive behavior. Others argue that this approach may actually reinforce aggressive tendencies and lead to an increase in violent behavior.

      Similarly, some individuals believe that venting one’s emotions through talking can be an effective way to reduce feelings of frustration and aggression. However, others argue that this approach may actually intensify negative emotions and lead to further aggression.

      Overall, the effectiveness of the catharsis hypothesis in reducing aggressive feelings remains a topic of debate. While some individuals may find these methods helpful in managing their emotions, others may require alternative approaches to address their aggressive tendencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence,...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Principlism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.4
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  • Question 117 - How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about...

    Correct

    • How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about one's own group and applying those beliefs to oneself?

      Your Answer: Self-stigma

      Explanation:

      Self stigma is when an individual adopts negative societal beliefs about their condition. On the other hand, courtesy stigma (also known as stigma by association) is a form of stigma directed towards individuals such as family members and healthcare professionals who are associated with those who have mental health issues.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.9
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  • Question 118 - Which ability is not included in Thurstone's list of primary abilities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ability is not included in Thurstone's list of primary abilities?

      Your Answer: Associative memory

      Correct Answer: Working memory

      Explanation:

      The WAIS includes working memory as a component, but it is not considered a fundamental skill.

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 119 - What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model?

      Your Answer: Developmental adversity

      Correct Answer: A predisposition for a disease and a triggering event

      Explanation:

      Diathesis-Stress Model

      The Diathesis-Stress Model acknowledges that a person’s behavior is influenced by both their experiences and genetics. This model proposes that some individuals have a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) towards a particular illness, and that certain environmental stressors can trigger the onset of the illness. The model emphasizes the interplay between nature and nurture in shaping a person’s mental health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 120 - Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent power?

      Your Answer: Hold a position of seniority

      Correct Answer: Charismatic

      Explanation:

      Referent power is the capacity of a leader to sway a follower’s actions based on the follower’s allegiance, esteem, camaraderie, adoration, fondness, of aspiration for validation. Typically, these leaders possess charisma.

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 121 - Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed the six fundamental emotions that are believed to be universally present in all humans?

      Your Answer: Harry Harlow

      Correct Answer: Paul Ekman

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18
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  • Question 122 - Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the human subject's voluntary consent in research?

      Your Answer: The Brandenburg code

      Correct Answer: The Nuremberg code

      Explanation:

      The Nuremberg Code and its Significance in Medical Ethics

      The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical guidelines that resulted from the trial of German physicians accused of war crimes and crimes against humanity in 1946. The physicians were charged with conducting medical experiments on concentration camp prisoners without their consent. This led to the creation of the Nuremberg Code, which was the first international document to advocate for voluntary participation and informed consent in medical experimentation.

      The Nuremberg Code has since become a cornerstone of medical ethics and has been adopted by many countries and organizations around the world. It emphasizes the importance of protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in medical research and requires that any experimentation be conducted with the voluntary and informed consent of the participants.

      The significance of the Nuremberg Code cannot be overstated, as it has helped to shape the way medical research is conducted and has led to greater awareness and respect for the rights of human subjects. It serves as a reminder of the atrocities committed during the Holocaust and the importance of ethical considerations in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 123 - How would you rephrase the question to refer to an ethical approach that...

    Incorrect

    • How would you rephrase the question to refer to an ethical approach that focuses on weighing potential positive and negative outcomes?

      Your Answer: Random

      Correct Answer: Utilitarian

      Explanation:

      Deontological (duty-based) ethics prioritize the actions of individuals over the observable practical consequences of those actions.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 124 - What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test?

      Your Answer: Visuospatial skills

      Correct Answer: Personality

      Explanation:

      The TAT is a psychological test that uses ambiguous pictures of people to elicit narratives from subjects. These narratives provide insight into the subjects’ underlying motives, concerns, and social perspectives.

      Neuropsychological Tests

      Neuropsychological tests are used to assess cognitive function and behavior in individuals with neurological of psychiatric conditions. These tests are designed to evaluate specific domains of cognitive function, such as attention, language, memory, visuospatial skills, executive function, and intelligence. They can also be used to assess personality traits and emotional functioning.

      Attention: The digit span test measures an individual’s ability to remember and repeat a series of numbers. The Trails A test assesses visual attention and processing speed.

      Language: The Boston Naming Test evaluates an individual’s ability to name objects. Verbal fluency tests assess an individual’s ability to generate words within a specific category.

      Memory: The Wechsler Memory Scale assesses different aspects of memory, including immediate and delayed recall. The Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test measures an individual’s ability to remember a list of words.

      Visuospatial skills: The Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure test assesses an individual’s ability to copy and recall a complex figure.

      Executive function: The Wisconsin Card Sort Test measures an individual’s ability to shift cognitive strategies. The Stroop test assesses an individual’s ability to inhibit automatic responses. The Trails B test evaluates an individual’s ability to switch between tasks.

      Intelligence: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test assesses an individual’s overall intellectual functioning. The National Adult Reading Test measures an individual’s premorbid intelligence. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale assesses intellectual functioning in children and adults.

      Personality (Projective Tests): The Rorschach Inkblot test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of inkblots. The Thematic Apperception Test evaluates an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of ambiguous pictures. The Draw-A-Person test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their drawing of a person. Sentence completion tests assess an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to incomplete sentences.

      Personality (Objective Tests): The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to a standardized questionnaire. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) evaluates an individual’s personality based on 16 different traits. The NEO Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality based on five different dimensions. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) measures an individual’s personality based on three different dimensions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 125 - Classical conditioning is associated with the term? ...

    Incorrect

    • Classical conditioning is associated with the term?

      Your Answer: Shaping

      Correct Answer: Stimulus

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 126 - Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values? ...

    Correct

    • Can you identify a personality test that measures traits using numerical values?

      Your Answer: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

      Explanation:

      As long as you comprehend the distinction between quantitative (involving a specific measure) and qualitative (involving a description), you should be able to answer this question without difficulty.

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 127 - What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics?

      Your Answer: Basic assumption groups reflect a subconscious process that operates within the group

      Explanation:

      The underlying process of basic assumption groups operates at a subconscious level within the group, serving to shield the group as a whole from distressing anxiety rather than focusing on individual members. In contrast, work groups prioritize productivity and shared responsibility for achieving goals, distinguishing them from basic assumption groups. Work groups are primarily focused on accomplishing the task at hand.

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 128 - Which aspect is often overlooked of not given enough importance in utilitarianism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which aspect is often overlooked of not given enough importance in utilitarianism?

      Your Answer: Future outcomes of actions

      Correct Answer: Individual rights

      Explanation:

      According to utilitarianism, the morally right action is one that results in the most happiness for the largest number of people. This ethical theory was first introduced by Jeremy Bentham in the early 1800s and later refined by John Stuart Mill. The ultimate goal is to maximize utility, which is the overall amount of pleasure of happiness in the world. In order to achieve this, the consequences of an action on all those affected must be considered. However, a utilitarian may have to acknowledge that sometimes the greatest happiness for the greatest number can only be achieved by violating certain rights, such as the right to not be punished if innocent.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 129 - Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into...

    Correct

    • Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into the behavior of individuals in Nazi Germany?

      Your Answer: Milgram's' experiment

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 130 - What is the term used to describe the inclination of a person to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the inclination of a person to believe that a behavior they witness is indicative of the actor's lasting and unchanging personality traits?

      Your Answer: Hostile Attribution Bias

      Correct Answer: Correspondence bias

      Explanation:

      While the terms fundamental attribution error (FAE) and correspondence bias are often used interchangeably, they actually have distinct differences. FAE refers to the tendency to attribute others’ behavior to internal causes rather than external ones. On the other hand, correspondence bias takes this a step further by attributing the behavior to the person’s enduring characteristics of personality, assuming that this is always how they are.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 131 - Who is recognized as the originator of trait theory? ...

    Correct

    • Who is recognized as the originator of trait theory?

      Your Answer: Allport

      Explanation:

      Trait Theory: Understanding Personality Traits

      Trait theory is a psychological approach that seeks to understand personality by identifying and categorizing specific traits. The theory was first introduced by Gordon Allport, who classified personality traits into three levels.

      At the highest level, we have cardinal traits. These are traits that are so pervasive that they dominate a person’s behavior and activities. Only a few people possess cardinal traits, but for those who do, these traits are the ruling force of their personality. Cardinal traits are usually evident to most people who know the individual.

      The second level of traits is central traits. These are easily detected characteristics within a person, traits that all people have a certain number of, usually around five to ten on average. Central traits are the building blocks of personality and help to define a person’s overall character.

      Finally, we have secondary traits. These are less evident and only manifest in select circumstances. They are not as important as central of cardinal traits, but they still play a role in shaping a person’s behavior and personality.

      Overall, trait theory provides a useful framework for understanding personality and how it develops over time. By identifying and categorizing specific traits, psychologists can gain insights into why people behave the way they do and how they can change their behavior to achieve their goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 132 - Which component is not considered a key element in Link and Phelan's stigma...

    Incorrect

    • Which component is not considered a key element in Link and Phelan's stigma model?

      Your Answer: Status loss

      Correct Answer: Scapegoating

      Explanation:

      Stigma Models

      Stigma refers to any attribute, trait, of disorder that marks an individual as being unacceptably different from the normal people with whom they routinely interact, and that elicits some form of community sanction. The most popular model of stigma comes from the work of Link and Phelan, which has four aspects to it.

      The first aspect is labelling, which refers to personal characteristics that mark individuals as different. These characteristics can be physical, mental, of social in nature and can include things like race, gender, sexual orientation, of mental illness.

      The second aspect is stereotyping, which involves linking labelled characteristics to undesirable characteristics. For example, people with mental illness may be stereotyped as violent of unpredictable, even though the vast majority of them are not.

      The third aspect is separating, which involves separating the labelled group and normal people by viewing them as very different. This can lead to social isolation and exclusion, which can further exacerbate the negative effects of stigma.

      The fourth and final aspect is status loss and discrimination, which refers to the devaluing, rejecting, and excluding of the labelled group. This can take many forms, including employment discrimination, housing discrimination, and social exclusion.

      Overall, the model of stigma developed by Link and Phelan provides a useful framework for understanding the complex and multifaceted nature of stigma and its effects on individuals and society as a whole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 133 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer: Impulsivity

      Correct Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 134 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the sequence of events that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the sequence of events that occurred when a man experienced chest pain at work, was taken to the hospital, received blood tests and an ECG, was prescribed medication, and signed off work for a month by a doctor?

      Your Answer: Abnormal illness behaviour

      Correct Answer: Sick role

      Explanation:

      There is no indication of feigning symptoms for personal benefit.

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 135 - Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross'...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross' classification system?

      Your Answer: Denial

      Correct Answer: Rejection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 136 - What is the definition of meaning of Ribot's law? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of meaning of Ribot's law?

      Your Answer: Retrograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Ribot’s Law and Jost’s Law: Understanding Memory Consolidation and Forgetting

      Ribot’s Law, also known as the law of retrograde amnesia, suggests that recent memories are more likely to be lost than older ones. This implies that memories need time to consolidate and become more resistant to forgetting. Ribot observed that people who experience traumatic events often lose memories leading up to the event, but older memories are preserved. This pattern is also observed in patients with Alzheimer’s disease, where the saying goes, you lose first what you learn last.

      Jost’s Law of forgetting complements Ribot’s Law by stating that if two memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older memory will decay more slowly than the younger one. Together, these laws suggest that memory consolidation is a gradual process that takes time, and once memories are consolidated, they become more resistant to forgetting. Understanding these laws can help us better understand how memories are formed, retained, and lost over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 137 - Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy?

      Your Answer: Hypnopompic hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Anosognosia

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hallucinations during sleep onset of awakening. While hypnagogic hallucinations have been traditionally linked to narcolepsy, both hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations can occur.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 138 - Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit...

    Incorrect

    • Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit of superiority?

      Your Answer: Erich Fromm

      Correct Answer: Alfred Adler

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 139 - As per the classification of the Registrar General, how are married mothers who...

    Incorrect

    • As per the classification of the Registrar General, how are married mothers who are unemployed categorized?

      Your Answer: According to their previous occupation

      Correct Answer: According to their husband's occupation

      Explanation:

      Social Class Determination and the Registrar General’s Classification System

      The Registrar General’s classification system, which was implemented in 1911, has been a useful tool in categorizing population groups. However, it can pose challenges when classifying individuals who are unemployed, part-time workers, of retirees.

      Traditionally, social class has been determined by occupation, with professionals, landowners, and higher managerial positions falling under Class I. Class II includes intermediate occupations, while skilled workers are classified under Class III. Semi-skilled workers are categorized under Class IV, and unskilled workers fall under Class V.

      However, students and retirees do not fit neatly into this classification system. They are often excluded from the traditional social class structure and are instead given their own category. This highlights the limitations of the Registrar General’s classification system and the need for more inclusive and comprehensive methods of categorizing population groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7
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  • Question 140 - What type of group is most susceptible to groupthink? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of group is most susceptible to groupthink?

      Your Answer: Informal

      Correct Answer: Homogeneous

      Explanation:

      Groupthink, Groupshift, and Deindividuation are potential problems that can occur when working in groups. Groupthink is a phenomenon where the desire for harmony of conformity in the group results in an incorrect of deviant decision-making outcome. This occurs when group members try to minimise conflict and reach a consensus decision without critical evaluation of alternative ideas of viewpoints. Several conditions must take place for groupthink to occur, such as group isolation, loyalty, loss of individual creativity, and an illusion of invulnerability. Symptoms of groupthink include an illusion of invulnerability, belief in inherent morality of the group, collective rationalisation, stereotypes of ‘out-groups,’ self-censorship, illusion of unanimity, direct pressure on dissenters, and self-appointed mindguards. To reduce groupthink, leaders should allow each member to challenge ideas and present objections, talk about and solicit ideas with people outside the group, invite outside experts to attend meetings, avoid expressing opinions about the preferred outcome, and assign a ‘Devil’s Advocate’ at all meetings to challenge any and all ideas.

      Groupshift is the phenomenon in which the initial positions of individual members of a group are exaggerated toward a more extreme position. For example, when people are in groups, they assess risk differently from when they are alone. In the group, they are likely to make riskier decisions as the shared risk makes the individual risk seem to be less.

      Deindividuation is a concept in social psychology that is generally thought of as the loss of self-awareness in groups. Theories of deindividuation propose that it is a psychological state of decreased self-evaluation and a decreased evaluation of apprehension causing abnormal collective behaviour, such as violent crowds and lynch mobs. Conversely, it also explains people’s tendency to donate more readily to charity when in groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the Id, ego, and Superego?

      Your Answer: Topographical

      Correct Answer: Structural

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Hypocretin deficiency has been linked to narcolepsy, as it is a neuropeptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus that plays a crucial role in regulating sleep, arousal, appetite, and energy expenditure (also known as orexin) (Mignot, 2000).

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels?

      Your Answer: Safety needs must be addressed before physiological needs can be dealt with

      Correct Answer: Self actualisation involves the most complex form of needs

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively?

      Your Answer: Corpus callosum

      Correct Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A parent punishes their toddler for throwing a tantrum, the toddler never throws...

    Incorrect

    • A parent punishes their toddler for throwing a tantrum, the toddler never throws a tantrum again. The change in behaviour results from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Chaining

      Correct Answer: Punishment

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - Who is the author of 'The Psychopathology of Everyday Life'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the author of 'The Psychopathology of Everyday Life'?

      Your Answer: Carl Jung

      Correct Answer: Sigmund Freud

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      103
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - The author of the book 'Asylums' is... ...

    Incorrect

    • The author of the book 'Asylums' is...

      Your Answer: Weber

      Correct Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?

      Your Answer: Clock Drawing test

      Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test

      Explanation:

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a tool used to evaluate a person’s ability to think abstractly and form concepts effectively. This test involves sorting objects based on their colour of material and copying block patterns using coloured cubes. The purpose of this test is to assess the patient’s cognitive abilities and determine their level of abstract thinking. By analyzing the patient’s performance on this test, healthcare professionals can gain insight into their cognitive functioning and develop appropriate treatment plans. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a valuable tool for assessing cognitive abilities and can be used in a variety of healthcare settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      149.4
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for? ...

    Correct

    • What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for?

      Your Answer: Language and knowledge

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Which of the following is not considered a fundamental element of language? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a fundamental element of language?

      Your Answer: Semantics

      Correct Answer: Subversion

      Explanation:

      The Four Core Components of Language

      Language is a complex system of communication that involves various components. The four core components of language are semantics, syntax, pragmatics, and phonology. Each of these components plays a crucial role in the way we use language to convey meaning and interact with others.

      Semantics refers to the meaning of words and how they are used in context. It involves understanding the relationships between words and their meanings, as well as the nuances of language. For example, the word run can have different meanings depending on the context in which it is used.

      Syntax refers to the rules that govern the structure of sentences and how words are arranged to convey meaning. It involves understanding the order of words, phrases, and clauses in a sentence, as well as the use of punctuation and other grammatical structures.

      Pragmatics refers to the social and cultural aspects of language use. It involves understanding the context in which language is used, as well as the social norms and expectations that govern communication. For example, the way we speak to our friends may be different from the way we speak to our boss.

      Phonology refers to the sounds of language and how they are used to convey meaning. It involves understanding the different sounds of language, as well as the rules that govern their use. For example, the sound p in pat is different from the sound b in bat, and these differences can change the meaning of a word.

      In summary, the four core components of language are essential for effective communication. By understanding these components, we can better understand how language works and use it more effectively in our interactions with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - What is the most appropriate way to describe someone's ethnicity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate way to describe someone's ethnicity?

      Your Answer: Social activities

      Correct Answer: Group identification

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ethnicity

      Ethnicity is a term used to describe a person’s affiliation with a specific group that they identify with based on shared heritage, language, culture, religion, of ideology. It is a way for individuals to connect with others who share similar experiences and traditions. Ethnicity can be a significant aspect of a person’s identity and can influence their beliefs, values, and behaviors. Understanding ethnicity is essential for promoting diversity and inclusivity in society. By recognizing and respecting different ethnicities, we can create a more tolerant and accepting world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - A woman is eager to quit drinking alcohol but is hesitant to use...

    Correct

    • A woman is eager to quit drinking alcohol but is hesitant to use antabuse. She is advised to visualize a scenario in her mind whenever she feels the urge to drink, where she is drinking by herself in her home and sobbing because her loved ones have abandoned her due to her addiction to alcohol. What is the name of this method?

      Your Answer: Covert sensitisation

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - What is a true statement about the working memory? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the working memory?

      Your Answer: The central executive enables the performance of verbal and visual tasks concurrently

      Explanation:

      The working memory is overseen by the central executive, which manages all its functions. Although the exact location of the central executive is not fully comprehended, it is believed to involve various regions of the brain.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below does not require the utilization of a conditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: Temporal conditioning

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food...

    Correct

    • How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food pellets be described when it stops pressing the lever after several attempts without receiving any pellets?

      Your Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      The term ‘extinction’ has distinct connotations in classical conditioning and operant conditioning. In operant conditioning, it denotes the waning of an operant response due to the absence of reinforcement. In classical conditioning, it signifies a decrease in a conditioned response (such as salivation) when a conditioned stimulus (such as a bell ringing) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (such as food) that it was previously associated with.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer: Sleep apnoea syndrome

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming instructor breaks down a stroke into its components and teaches them separately before combining them?

      Your Answer: Linking

      Correct Answer: Chaining

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?

      Your Answer: Major depression

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders

      Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - What is the term used by Freud to describe the process through which...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used by Freud to describe the process through which people release their aggressive impulses?

      Your Answer: Eros

      Correct Answer: Catharsis

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.5
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  • Question 160 - Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe...

    Incorrect

    • Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe it is because they did well and met high standards. But when the same student receives a bad grade, they assume the teacher must be in a bad mood of doesn't like them. What is this reaction an example of?

      Your Answer: An existential approach

      Correct Answer: Self-serving bias

      Explanation:

      A fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to overemphasize dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors when explaining other people’s behavior. The correct term for making false assumptions about other people’s behavior is actually the fundamental attribution error.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      29.8
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  • Question 161 - A change can occur as a result of cognitive dissonance in which of...

    Incorrect

    • A change can occur as a result of cognitive dissonance in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Conformity

      Correct Answer: Attitude

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - In which type of storage is factual information and general knowledge about the...

    Incorrect

    • In which type of storage is factual information and general knowledge about the world kept?

      Your Answer: Haptic memory

      Correct Answer: Semantic memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.7
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  • Question 163 - How does the hippocampal formation interact with emotional memories? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does the hippocampal formation interact with emotional memories?

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Correct Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - A teenager is prescribed an antidepressant by their psychiatrist. 6 weeks later they...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is prescribed an antidepressant by their psychiatrist. 6 weeks later they feel better and conclude that depression must have a biological cause. Which of the following is illustrated by this scenario?

      Your Answer: Butterfly effect

      Correct Answer: Intervention-causation fallacy

      Explanation:

      Intervention-Causation Fallacy

      The intervention-causation fallacy is a common mistake where people assume that a cure proves a cause. For instance, if antidepressants alleviate symptoms of depression, it does not necessarily mean that depression has a biological cause. It is important to note that just because a treatment works, it does not necessarily mean that it is addressing the root cause of the problem. Therefore, it is crucial to be cautious when making assumptions about causation based on interventions. By avoiding this fallacy, we can ensure that we are accurately identifying the underlying causes of problems and developing effective solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.7
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  • Question 165 - Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the creator of the bobo doll experiment, which is utilized to reinforce his social learning theory?

      Your Answer: Watson

      Correct Answer: Bandura

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?...

    Incorrect

    • What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?

      Your Answer: Goffman

      Correct Answer: Brown and Harris

      Explanation:

      Depression (Brown and Harris)

      In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.9
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  • Question 167 - What did Freud believe about the Id? ...

    Correct

    • What did Freud believe about the Id?

      Your Answer: It has no sense of time

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      530.3
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  • Question 168 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer: Representativeness

      Correct Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 169 - A new student, recently enrolled, attends a school assembly. At this assembly, she...

    Incorrect

    • A new student, recently enrolled, attends a school assembly. At this assembly, she sees a group of older students whispering to each other. She notices them looking her way as she finds a seat. She thinks that they are judging her and trying to intimidate her. She mentions this to a teacher who seems surprised and encourages her to be open to the fact that the older students might have been discussing something unrelated to her.

      Which of the following is illustrated by this case example?

      Your Answer: False consensus effect

      Correct Answer: Hostile attribution bias

      Explanation:

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - What was the conditioned stimulus in Pavlov's conditioning experiments? ...

    Correct

    • What was the conditioned stimulus in Pavlov's conditioning experiments?

      Your Answer: The ringing of the bell

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - Which term is commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Correct

    • Which term is commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer: Total institution

      Explanation:

      Goffman coined the term ‘total institution’ in relation to asylums, which were responsible for fulfilling all the patients’ requirements, thereby hindering their rehabilitation.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      21.8
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  • Question 172 - For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment?

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Correct Answer: Suggestibility

      Explanation:

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale is a tool used to measure suggestibility in individuals. It involves reading a story to participants, who are then asked to recall as much as they can remember. Afterward, participants are asked 20 questions related to the story, 15 of which are misleading. Once the questions have been answered, participants are given negative feedback on their performance and told that they made several errors. They are then asked to repeat the questions to obtain more accurate answers. Based on the participants’ responses to the misleading questions, a total suggestibility score can be calculated. This scale is useful in understanding how easily individuals can be influenced of manipulated by external factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      72.1
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  • Question 173 - An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving...

    Correct

    • An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving alcohol despite no longer enjoying its effects. What is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Incentive salience

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief

      Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.

      Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      178
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?

      Your Answer: Another term for a transitional object

      Correct Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      30.2
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  • Question 175 - What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories?

      Your Answer: The rightness or wrongness of an act depends upon why it was done

      Correct Answer: The moral status of an act is determined by its outcomes

      Explanation:

      The exam will require you to differentiate between the three main ethical principles: consequentialism, virtue theory, and deontology. Consequentialism prioritizes outcomes over intentions, while virtue theory emphasizes character, and deontology focuses on motives. A deep understanding of ethics is not necessary, but a basic comprehension of these principles is required.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.4
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  • Question 176 - What is a true statement about temperament? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about temperament?

      Your Answer: 90% of children can be classified as one of the three types outlined by Thomas and Chess

      Correct Answer: Temperament is stable throughout childhood

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.9
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  • Question 177 - What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

      Your Answer: Transcendence

      Correct Answer: Esteem

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - Which individual is credited with developing the motivational concept known as the 'hierarchy...

    Correct

    • Which individual is credited with developing the motivational concept known as the 'hierarchy of needs'?

      Your Answer: Abraham Maslow

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - In what area of human behavior did Lorenz develop his ideas based on...

    Incorrect

    • In what area of human behavior did Lorenz develop his ideas based on his research with birds?

      Your Answer: Fear

      Correct Answer: Aggression

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.4
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  • Question 180 - Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance?

      Your Answer: Skinner

      Correct Answer: Festinger

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual delved into the field of medical sociology regarding the concept of 'the sick role'?

      Your Answer: Comte

      Correct Answer: Parson's

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.5
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  • Question 182 - What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of...

    Incorrect

    • What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of death?

      Your Answer: Erebos

      Correct Answer: Thanatos

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher conducted experiments with a team of accomplices to study how individuals conform to group opinions on the length of a string, even if it is clearly incorrect?

      Your Answer: Heider

      Correct Answer: Asch

      Explanation:

      Psychology Experiments and Theories

      Asch conducted experiments on conformity, where participants tended to agree with group estimates even when they were clearly wrong. Heider introduced attribution theory and the fundamental attribution error. Milgram studied obedience by instructing participants to administer electric shocks to actors who were struggling in a learning task. Janis described groupthink, which is the tendency to pursue consensus in group decisions. On a different note, James Osterberg, who is more commonly known as Iggy Pop, performed with the rock band The Stooges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - How can the principle of Premack be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the principle of Premack be described?

      Your Answer: Anxiety about a situation is directly linked to perceived lack of ability to control it

      Correct Answer: High frequency behaviours can be used to reinforce low frequency behaviour

      Explanation:

      Premack’s Principle

      Premack’s principle is a concept that suggests that preferred behaviors can be utilized to reinforce unpreferred behaviors. This principle is based on the observation that high-probability behaviors, which are frequently performed under conditions of free choice, can be used to reinforce low-probability behaviors. For instance, parents can tell their children that they can have pudding only after they finish their main course. Similarly, children can be allowed to go out and play only after they have completed their homework. By using this principle, individuals can increase the likelihood of performing less preferred behaviors by linking them to more preferred behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - To which category of memory does procedural memory belong? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which category of memory does procedural memory belong?

      Your Answer: Episodic

      Correct Answer: Implicit

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - Which statement accurately defines the concept of fundamental attribution error? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately defines the concept of fundamental attribution error?

      Your Answer: Refusing to accept one's own errors

      Correct Answer: Attributing others mistakes to their personal dispositions

      Explanation:

      The fundamental attribution error pertains to our tendency to make biased judgments about the behavior of others, rather than our own.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      71.9
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer: Antipsychiatry

      Correct Answer: Total Institutions

      Explanation:

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect?

      Your Answer: The propensity to violence of patients with learning disabilities when there are rapid shifts in environmental lighting

      Correct Answer: Alterations in behaviour due to subjective awareness of being observed

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame of dishonor that distinguishes an individual from their peers?

      Your Answer: Prejudice

      Correct Answer: Stigma

      Explanation:

      Stigma refers to a characteristic of behavior that is deemed shameful by society and causes an individual to be viewed as different from others.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to...

    Incorrect

    • What are the professional standards that doctors in the UK are expected to adhere to?

      Your Answer: Confidentiality must never be breached

      Correct Answer: The GMC permits doctors to accept gifts from patients

      Explanation:

      Professionalism and UK Regulation

      Oaths and declarations are important in establishing trust and credibility for professions. The Hippocratic Oath, dating back to 425 BC, is a part of the Western medical tradition and emphasizes the teaching of medicine, patient’s best interests, confidentiality, and abstinence from harmful practices. However, it does not mention concepts such as autonomy of justice and forbids surgery. The Declaration of Geneva (1948) and the Declaration of Helsinki (1964) are modern-day versions of the Hippocratic Oath, emphasizing the patient’s health and interests over science and society. These declarations arose from the concern of the medical community’s complicity with the Nazi party during World War II.

      In the UK, doctors must register with the General Medical Council (GMC), which sets professional standards and maintains a register of licensed doctors. It is illegal to practice medicine without a license in the UK. The GMC’s Good Medical Practice and the Good Medical Practice: Framework for Appraisal and Revalidation document emphasizes the duty of doctors to be honest and trustworthy, with dishonesty viewed harshly. Confidentiality is an important legal and ethical duty, but it is not absolute. Breaches of confidentiality may occur in emergencies, in the interests of others, when required by statute of the courts, of when required by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). Sexualized relationships with current patients are prohibited, and accepting unsolicited gifts from patients is allowed but must not affect the way doctors prescribe, advise, treat, refer, of commission services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'institutional neurosis'?

      Your Answer: Goffman

      Correct Answer: Barton

      Explanation:

      Barton introduced the concept of ‘institutional neurosis’ in 1960, describing it as a condition that affects individuals who have been institutionalized for a prolonged period of time. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, lack of motivation, disinterest in anything beyond the mundane, submission to authority, and an inability to express resentment towards unfair treatment. Other symptoms include a lack of interest in the future, an inability to make practical plans, a decline in personal hygiene and standards, and a loss of individuality. Those affected by institutional neurosis often resign themselves to the belief that things will remain unchanged and unchanging indefinitely.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?...

    Incorrect

    • At what level of Maslow's original hierarchy are the highest level needs addressed?

      Your Answer: Safety

      Correct Answer: Self-actualisation

      Explanation:

      It is not uncommon for questions that we have written to end up on the exam. This has been a frequent occurrence throughout the years.

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - Who proposed that intelligence could not be measured by a single factor and...

    Incorrect

    • Who proposed that intelligence could not be measured by a single factor and instead identified seven distinct primary abilities?

      Your Answer: Wechsler

      Correct Answer: Thurstone

      Explanation:

      Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence

      Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - A consultant pediatrician attends the clinic for an interview with a young patient....

    Incorrect

    • A consultant pediatrician attends the clinic for an interview with a young patient. The child had been very restless until she arrived but settled down immediately in fear that the doctor might decide to give her a shot. This is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Practice effect

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of bias that occurs when individuals alter their behavior because they believe they are being observed. The halo effect is a cognitive bias where one’s perception of a trait is influenced by their perception of another trait, such as assuming someone with glasses is intelligent. The Forer effect explains why people give high accuracy ratings to personality descriptions that are actually vague and general enough to apply to many people, as seen in practices like astrology. The interloper effect is the tendency to view third-party consultation as objective. The practice effect refers to the impact of past experience on taking a test again, resulting in higher scores, especially when the interval between tests is short.

      The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - What is a framework that can be used for ethical discussions, regardless of...

    Incorrect

    • What is a framework that can be used for ethical discussions, regardless of the ethical theory held by the participants?

      Your Answer: Utilitarianism

      Correct Answer: The four principles

      Explanation:

      The four principles serve as a framework for ethical discussions, rather than being an ethical theory themselves. They provide guidelines that can be used regardless of the ethical theory that the participants may hold.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind? ...

    Incorrect

    • What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind?

      Your Answer: Tell-me-a-story Test

      Correct Answer: Sally-Anne Test

      Explanation:

      The assessment of theory of mind is conducted through the Sally Ann test, while executive function is evaluated through the tower of London test. Projective personality tests include the tell-me-a-story test and the Rorschach test. Ammons Quick Test is utilized to aid in the evaluation of premorbid intelligence.

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - What is the main region of the brain responsible for 'Working memory'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main region of the brain responsible for 'Working memory'?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Explanation:

      – Different structures are involved in working memory.
      – The prefrontal cortex is the main structure that is expected to be known.
      – The hippocampus main role is to consolidate short-term memories to long-term storage.

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?...

    Incorrect

    • Which study focused on men who participated in sexual activities in public restrooms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tearoom study

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - What is another term for non-declarative memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another term for non-declarative memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Implicit

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (129/198) 65%
Passmed