00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 78-year-old man is currently receiving palliative care for metastatic lung cancer. He...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is currently receiving palliative care for metastatic lung cancer. He has been admitted to the hospital with worsening back pain and lower limb neurological symptoms. Prior to admission, his pain was managed with paracetamol orally (PO) 1000 mg four times daily (QDS), codeine PO 60 mg QDS, and ibuprofen PO 400 mg three times daily (TDS). He has been diagnosed with metastatic deposits in his bony spine, causing compression, and has been scheduled for radiotherapy. The specialist pain team has prescribed Zomorph 30 mg PO twice daily (BD) and has requested that you prescribe appropriate breakthrough pain relief.
      What is an appropriate regimen for breakthrough pain relief?

      Your Answer: Morphine sulphate PO 5–10 mg PRN

      Explanation:

      Choosing Appropriate Breakthrough Analgesia for a Patient on Slow-Release Morphine

      When a patient is prescribed a slow-release morphine for chronic pain, they may also require an immediate-release morphine-containing prescription for breakthrough analgesia. The recommended dose for breakthrough analgesia is one tenth to one sixth of the total daily dose of morphine, given as an immediate-release preparation. For example, if a patient is taking 84 mg of morphine per day, their breakthrough dose should be 5-10 mg as needed.

      It is important to note that not all opioid medications are appropriate for breakthrough analgesia. Oxycontin, a slow-release preparation of oxycodone, would not be effective for this purpose. Similarly, Zomorph, a slow-release morphine, would also not be appropriate for breakthrough analgesia. It is important to choose an immediate-release opioid medication, such as morphine sulphate, in the appropriate dose for effective breakthrough pain relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Explanation:

      Common Bleeding Disorders in Children

      Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.

      Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.

      Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.

      Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are evaluating the accuracy of a new blood test to diagnose ulcerative...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating the accuracy of a new blood test to diagnose ulcerative colitis in elderly patients and come across a study that analyzed its use in 200 individuals, ten of whom were histologically diagnosed with the condition. According to the study, the blood test correctly identified seven patients as positive and 188 patients as negative. What is the sensitivity of this blood test for diagnosing ulcerative colitis in elderly patients in this study?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool for diagnosing and treating various conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the accuracy of these tests to make informed decisions about patient care. Two important measures of accuracy are sensitivity and specificity.

      Sensitivity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify patients who have a particular condition. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives (patients with the condition who test positive) by the sum of true positives and false negatives (patients with the condition who test negative). For example, if a test correctly identifies 7 out of 10 patients with ulcerative colitis, its sensitivity is 70%.

      On the other hand, specificity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify patients who do not have a particular condition. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives (patients without the condition who test negative) by the sum of true negatives and false positives (patients without the condition who test positive).

      Understanding sensitivity and specificity can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care and treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery during an asthma attack. According to...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery during an asthma attack. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, what finding would classify the asthma attack as life-threatening instead of just severe?

      Your Answer: Peak flow 30% of best

      Explanation:

      Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.

      For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea accompanied by bilateral peripheral oedema. He reports feeling extremely fatigued lately. During the physical examination, his lungs are clear, but he has ascites. On auscultation of his heart sounds, you detect a holosystolic murmur with a high pitch at the left sternal edge, extending to the right sternal edge. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs and Symptoms

      Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by signs of right heart failure, such as dyspnea and peripheral edema, and a classical murmur. The backflow of blood to the right atrium leads to right heart dilation, weakness, and eventually failure, resulting in ascites and poor ejection fraction causing edema.

      Mitral regurgitation has a similar murmur to tricuspid regurgitation but is heard best at the apex.

      Aortic regurgitation is identified by an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal edge.

      Aortic stenosis does not typically result in ascites, and its murmur is ejection systolic.

      Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard over the pulmonary post and not a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal edge.

      Understanding Heart Murmurs and Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following is not a reason for circumcision in infants?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not a reason for circumcision in infants?

      Your Answer: Peyronie's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers? ...

    Correct

    • What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers?

      Your Answer: Human herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 87-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He was...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He was found on his bathroom floor early this morning by his caregiver. He fell over last night, and had been unable to get up since then. He is now complaining of generalised aches and pains. He has no past medical history and does not take any regular medications.

      On examination, he is cold and appears frail; he has a heart rate of 70/minute, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. His urine is also “muddy-looking'.

      Blood tests showed the following:
      pH 7.29
      Bicarbonate 15 mmol/l
      Creatine kinase 1559 u/l
      Creatinine 301 µmol/l
      Potassium 5.7 mmol/l

      Routine blood tests a few weeks ago showed:
      pH 7.41
      Bicarbonate 27 mmol/l
      Creatine kinase 99 u/l
      Creatinine 61 µmol/l
      Potassium 4.2 mmol/l

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of this patient’s acute kidney injury (AKI)?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and history strongly suggest that their AKI is caused by rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The patient’s prolonged immobility, muscle pain, and discolored urine (due to myoglobinuria) support this diagnosis, as does the metabolic acidosis seen on the VBG. The fact that the patient had normal kidney function just a few weeks ago suggests that this is an AKI rather than CKD. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely given the absence of hypertension, atherosclerosis, and antihypertensive medication use. While some forms of glomerulonephritis can cause a rapidly progressive AKI, the patient has not reported any other symptoms (such as hemoptysis) that would suggest this as a cause. Chronic interstitial nephritis typically results in a gradual decline in kidney function, which is not consistent with the patient’s rapid deterioration.

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a common cause of acute kidney injury (AKI) that affects the functioning of the kidney by causing necrosis of renal tubular epithelial cells. The condition is reversible in its early stages if the cause is removed. There are two main causes of ATN: ischaemia and nephrotoxins. Ischaemia can be caused by shock or sepsis, while nephrotoxins can be caused by aminoglycosides, myoglobin secondary to rhabdomyolysis, radiocontrast agents, or lead. Features of ATN include raised urea, creatinine, and potassium levels, as well as muddy brown casts in the urine. Histopathological features include tubular epithelium necrosis, dilation of the tubules, and necrotic cells obstructing the tubule lumen. ATN has three phases: the oliguric phase, the polyuric phase, and the recovery phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate the threads of her intra-uterine device and is unable to schedule an appointment with her primary care physician. She reports no pain, fever, or unusual discharge. She has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period was a week ago.

      During a speculum examination, the threads are not visible, so a transvaginal ultrasound is performed. The device is detected, and the threads are discovered to have retracted into the cervical canal. The threads are brought back into view. Additionally, a 4 cm multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow is found in the right ovary.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for biopsy of cyst

      Explanation:

      When a complex ovarian cyst is discovered, there should be a high level of suspicion for ovarian cancer and a biopsy should be performed. The IOTA criteria can be used to determine if a cyst is likely benign or malignant. If any of the ‘M rules’ are present, such as an irregular solid tumor, ascites, at least 4 papillary structures, an irregular multilocular solid tumor with a diameter of at least 100mm, or very strong blood flow, the patient should be referred to a gynecology oncology department for further evaluation. In this case, the patient has a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow, so a referral to the gynecology oncology service for biopsy is necessary. It is important not to reassure the patient that the cyst is benign just because it is asymptomatic, as many ovarian cancers are asymptomatic until a late stage. It is also not appropriate to immediately perform surgery, as the cyst may be benign and not require urgent intervention. Yearly ultrasounds may be appropriate for simple ovarian cysts of a certain size, but in this case, further investigation is necessary due to the concerning features of the cyst. While cysts under 5 cm in diameter are often physiological and do not require follow-up, the presence of a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow warrants further investigation.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As a gynaecologist, you are treating a patient on the ward who has...

    Correct

    • As a gynaecologist, you are treating a patient on the ward who has been diagnosed with endometrial hyperplasia. Can you identify the medication that is linked to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Endometrial hyperplasia is caused by the presence of unopposed estrogen, and tamoxifen is a known risk factor for this condition. Tamoxifen is commonly used to treat estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, but it has pro-estrogenic effects on the endometrium. This can lead to endometrial hyperplasia if not balanced by progesterone. However, combined oral contraceptive pills and progesterone-only pills contain progesterone, which prevents unopposed estrogen stimulation. While thyroid problems and obesity can also contribute to endometrial hyperplasia, taking levothyroxine or orlistat to treat these conditions does not increase the risk.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Passmed