00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient is conscious but appears drowsy. The ambulance crew found empty paracetamol packets at the scene, indicating a dose of around 15g taken approximately 8 hours ago. Blood tests have been taken, including a paracetamol level, but results are still pending. The patient's vital signs are stable, and he weighs 70kg.
      What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents 8-24 hours after taking an overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol, acetylcysteine should be administered even if the plasma-paracetamol concentration is not yet available. This applies to the case of a 22-year-old man who took a significant paracetamol overdose about 9 hours ago. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal are not appropriate in this scenario, and sodium bicarbonate is not typically used in paracetamol poisoning. Observing and monitoring the patient until paracetamol levels return is not recommended in this case, as acetylcysteine should be started immediately due to the significant overdose and the time elapsed since ingestion.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behaviour before. He describes finding her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the GP. There is no personal or family history of psychiatric illness. The patient does not seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma. Which medication is most likely to be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Sarah is a 3-month-old baby who was brought in by her father. He...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 3-month-old baby who was brought in by her father. He is extremely worried as his baby is generally unwell. Sarah has not been feeding well over the past 24 hours and has been very irritable. Her father had noted a fever of 38.5ºC this morning and this prompted him to seek medical attention. Her nappies continued to appear wet over this time and her father noted she had vomited once at home. No other symptoms were noted without cough.

      On examination, Sarah's general tone is maintained and she does not appear to display any signs of hypotonia. She is moving all 4 limbs equally. The chest remains clear. An area of non-blanching petechiae was noted.

      A lumbar puncture was performed with the following results:

      Parameter Value Normal range
      White cell count 200 cells <3
      Neutrophils 180 cells 0
      Lymphocytes 20 cells <22
      Protein 1.8g/L <1g/L
      CSF: serum glucose ratio 0.3 >=0.6

      What is the appropriate treatment for Sarah's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his tongue, which has failed to heal for over three months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. The patient is otherwise well, with a history of mild osteoarthritis of the knees, but nil else of note. He is a builder, and smokes 30 cigarettes a day for the past 30 years. He drinks around 30 units of alcohol a week.
      Following examination, the patient is referred urgently as a case of suspected cancer of the tongue.
      Which one of the following statements is correct about tongue cancer?

      Your Answer: It may be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting: Tongue Cancer Risk Factors

      Tongue cancer is a rare form of oral carcinoma, accounting for only 2% of overall cancers. While it can be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV), there are several misconceptions about its risk factors. Contrary to popular belief, smoking and alcohol are known risk factors, while coconut ingestion is not. Betel nut ingestion, on the other hand, is associated with an increased risk of tongue cancer. It is important to note that tongue cancer usually metastasises to the upper cervical and submandibular nodes, not the lower cervical nodes. However, early detection and treatment with a combination of surgery and chemoradiotherapy can often lead to a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a headache after being...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a headache after being referred by his General Practitioner (GP). The GP referral letter mentions that the patient presented with a history of fluctuating consciousness levels for the past week. The wife reports that her husband had a fall about a week ago and since then, he seemed to be a different man. The patient mentions that he has been experiencing a dull headache which did not respond to regular paracetamol. He denies nausea, vomiting and photophobia.
      On examination, the vital signs are stable, the patient is apyrexial and there are no rashes. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol dependence, liver cirrhosis, gout and hypertension. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the patient’s head shows a crescent-shaped area of haemorrhage with midline shift of the brain structures.
      What is the best next management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Burr hole drainage

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Subdural Haemorrhage: Burr Hole Drainage, Mannitol, Nimodipine, Endovascular Coiling, and Aspirin

      Subdural haemorrhage is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment. The most common treatment option for subdural haemorrhage is burr hole drainage, which involves removing the haematoma and relieving the compression of the brain. Mannitol is another treatment option that is used to reduce intracranial pressure if signs of intracranial pressure are present. Nimodipine is used in cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage to reduce vasospasm, which is often an acute complication of subarachnoid haemorrhage and leads to cerebral ischaemia. Endovascular coiling is a treatment for subarachnoid haemorrhage and is not indicated for subdural haemorrhage. Aspirin is contraindicated in the case of a haemorrhagic stroke or intracranial haemorrhage, as it can worsen bleeding. Therefore, it is important to rule out bleeding as the cause of the patient’s symptoms before administering aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old female patient complains of loin pain and haematuria. Upon urine dipstick...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old female patient complains of loin pain and haematuria. Upon urine dipstick examination, the results show:
      Blood ++++
      Nitrites POS
      Leucocytes +++
      Protein ++
      Further urine culture reveals a Proteus infection, while an x-ray confirms the presence of a stag-horn calculus in the left renal pelvis. What is the probable composition of the renal stone?

      Your Answer: Struvite

      Explanation:

      Stag-horn calculi consist of struvite and develop in urine with high alkalinity, which is often caused by the presence of ammonia-producing bacteria.

      Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and was diagnosed with an AAA measuring 4.2 cm at its widest diameter. What would be the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Annual monitoring with ultrasound scanning

      Explanation:

      Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that affects men aged 65 and over, putting them at risk of developing an enlarged aorta. To manage this condition, different approaches are taken depending on the size of the aneurysm.

      Annual Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
      Men aged 65 and over are offered screening via ultrasound scanning during the year they turn 65. Patients diagnosed with a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm in diameter) are invited to return annually for monitoring. They are also given lifestyle advice, including smoking cessation, diet, and exercise.

      Discharge with Reassurance
      Patients with a normal result (measurement of <3 cm in diameter) are discharged and do not require further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to progress to a dangerous extent. Three-Monthly Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
      Patients with a medium-sized AAA (4.5-5.4 cm in diameter) are offered three-monthly ultrasound scanning.

      Referral to a Specialist Surgeon within Two Weeks for Further Assessment
      Patients with a large AAA (5.5 cm or more in diameter) are referred to a specialist surgeon to be seen within two weeks to discuss treatment options. Surgical repair is usually advised, as long as there are no contraindications to surgery.

      Immediate Admission under a Surgical Team for Surgical Repair
      Emergency repair is not indicated for an aneurysm measuring 4.2 cm. Emergency repair is usually only indicated if a patient has a leaking or ruptured aortic aneurysm.

      Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) According to Size

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended abdomen. Examination findings: generalised abdominal tenderness and ascites. Temperature 37.5 °C.
      Which intervention should be undertaken first?

      Your Answer: Commence spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Diagnostic ascitic tap

      Explanation:

      Management of Ascites: Importance of Prompt Investigation and Treatment of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Ascites is a common complication in patients with end-stage liver disease and poor synthetic function. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication that can occur in these patients, leading to a high mortality rate. Prompt investigation and treatment are crucial in managing ascites and preventing SBP.

      Diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly in any patient presenting with ascites, regardless of the time of day. A broad-spectrum antibiotic should be given immediately if there is a raised cell count consistent with SBP. Once SBP has been excluded or treated, therapeutic paracentesis may be considered for patients with large, tense, or resistant ascites.

      During a diagnostic tap, various investigations should be performed, including cell count, microscopy, culture and sensitivity, cytology, protein and albumin, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose, and amylase. Additional investigations may be indicated based on the patient’s condition.

      The most common cause of SBP is Escherichia coli, and oral ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav are recommended as first-line agents. Intravenous cephalosporins may be used if the patient is unwell. However, a diagnosis of SBP should be confirmed before starting treatment.

      First-line medical management of ascites is spironolactone, which achieves better clinical results than furosemide. Furosemide may be used in conjunction with spironolactone in resistant ascites or where potassium rises due to spironolactone.

      In summary, prompt investigation and treatment of ascites are crucial in managing SBP and preventing complications. A diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly, and appropriate investigations and treatment should be initiated based on the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Sarah is a 22-year-old female who has been rushed to the hospital after...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 22-year-old female who has been rushed to the hospital after a serious car crash. She has suffered from various injuries, including a penetrating injury to her right eye, multiple fractures in her ribs, and a ruptured spleen that requires immediate surgery. Which of the following muscle relaxants for anesthesia should not be used for Sarah?

      Your Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium should not be used for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma due to its potential to increase intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is contraindicated for individuals with hyperkalemia, recent burns, spinal cord trauma causing paraplegia, and previous suxamethonium allergy. Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants would be more appropriate options for patients with penetrating eye injuries.

      Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs

      Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs are responsible for inducing muscle paralysis, which is a necessary prerequisite for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.

      Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs act as competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Examples of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium), while examples of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium.

      While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they also come with potential adverse effects. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause malignant hyperthermia and transient hyperkalaemia, while non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause hypotension. However, these adverse effects can be reversed using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine.

      It is important to note that suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation and may cause fasciculations. Understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs is crucial in ensuring their safe and effective use in surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells, dizziness, palpitations and pressure in his chest. He experiences these symptoms for 5-10 minutes during which he becomes anxious about fainting and dying. He takes a longer route to work to avoid crossing busy streets as he fears getting hit by a car if he faints. He avoids public speaking and works late into the night from home, which exacerbates his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder with agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Panic Disorder from Other Conditions

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by intense anxiety episodes with somatic symptoms and an exaggerated sense of danger. However, it can be challenging to distinguish panic disorder from other conditions that share similar symptoms. Here are some examples:

      Panic Disorder vs. Somatisation Disorder

      Patients with somatisation disorder also experience physical symptoms, but they fall into four different clusters: pain, gastrointestinal, urogenital, and neurological dysfunction. In contrast, panic disorder symptoms are more generalized and not limited to specific bodily functions.

      Panic Disorder vs. Hypoglycemia

      Hypoglycemia rarely induces severe panic or anticipatory anxiety, except in cases of insulin reactions. Patients with hypoglycemia typically experience symptoms such as sweating and hunger, which are not necessarily associated with panic disorder.

      Panic Disorder vs. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia

      Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is a heart condition that causes a doubling of the pulse rate and requires electrocardiographic evidence for diagnosis. While it may cause some anxiety, it is not typically accompanied by the intense subjective anxiety seen in panic disorder.

      Panic Disorder vs. Specific Phobia

      Specific phobias involve reactions to limited cues or situations, such as spiders, blood, or needles. While they may trigger panic attacks and avoidance, they are not as generalized as panic disorder and are limited to specific feared situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed