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  • Question 1 - Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with suicidal thoughts. Upon further inquiry, Samantha also reveals experiencing low mood, lack of energy, early morning awakenings, and difficulty concentrating. She reports that these symptoms are persistent, but she has both good and bad days. Samantha has no prior psychiatric history. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate treatment for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with depression, it is important to consider several factors according to NICE guidelines. These include managing suicide risk, safeguarding concerns for vulnerable individuals, and any comorbid conditions such as substance abuse. If the patient exhibits psychotic symptoms or eating disorders, seeking expert advice is recommended. For those with mild depression or subthreshold symptoms, active monitoring and follow-up appointments are suggested. Psychological interventions through IAPT are recommended for persistent subthreshold or mild-to-moderate depression, while antidepressants and high-intensity psychological interventions are recommended for moderate or severe depression. When prescribing antidepressants, it is important to consider the patient’s history and any chronic physical health problems, with sertraline being preferred in such cases due to its lower risk of drug interactions. Practical solutions to stressors contributing to depression should also be discussed.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
      Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching that has developed over the past few weeks. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. The patient reports that the itch is particularly bothersome on her palms and soles. She denies any recent illness or fever and states that she otherwise feels well. On examination, there is no evidence of a rash. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP. What should be discussed with the patient?

      Your Answer: Elective caesarean section at 37 weeks

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman presents with pruritus, the possibility of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy should be considered. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of bile acids and liver enzymes, and can increase the risk of stillbirth if the pregnancy continues. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is another potential diagnosis, but it typically presents with additional symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The recommended course of action is to induce labor at 37 weeks. Ursodeoxycholic acid is often used for symptom management, while dexamethasone should not be used as a first-line treatment due to concerns about its effects on the fetus. An MRCP is not necessary in this case, as the diagnosis is already supported by the patient’s history and blood test results. Elective caesarean is not an appropriate option for management.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      37.3
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  • Question 4 - A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and uncontrollable behaviors. She reports feeling distressed and finds relief only by repeating a certain phrase in her mind. She has no significant medical history and is in good physical health.

      What is the symptom being described in this case?

      Your Answer: Withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Compulsion

      Explanation:

      An obsession is an unwelcome and intrusive thought that causes discomfort. On the other hand, a compulsion is an irrational behavior that a person feels compelled to perform in order to alleviate the anxiety caused by the obsession.

      Compulsions can be either mental or physical, such as repeatedly washing one’s hands or checking if a door is locked. In contrast, thought insertion is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person feels that their thoughts are not their own and have been inserted by someone else.

      Intrusive thoughts are involuntary and unwelcome thoughts that can be experienced by anyone. However, if they become frequent and distressing, they can develop into obsessions, which are a more severe form of intrusive thoughts. Obsessions, when coupled with compulsions, are a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

      Lastly, thought withdrawal is another delusion found in schizophrenia where a person believes that their thoughts have been taken away by an external force.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with a history of two episodes of pneumothorax over the last 12 months was found to have ectopia lentis, during a recent examination by an ophthalmologist. It is noted that she has pectus excavatum, pes planus, a high arched palate and a positive wrist and thumb sign.
      What is the likely finding from her echocardiogram?

      Your Answer: Ebstein’s anomaly

      Correct Answer: Dilated aortic root

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Conditions and Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue and can lead to various cardiovascular conditions. One of the most common complications is aortic aneurysm, which occurs when the ascending aorta becomes dilated and can result in acute aortic dissection. Additionally, the stretching of the aortic valve annulus can cause aortic regurgitation. Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FBN1 gene and can be differentiated from other connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, and homocystinuria.

      Aortic valve stenosis, on the other hand, is not associated with Marfan syndrome and is caused by either senile calcific degeneration or a congenital bicuspid aortic valve. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome and presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Ventricular septal defects and Ebstein’s anomaly are also not associated with Marfan syndrome.

      In summary, Marfan syndrome can lead to various cardiovascular complications, and it is important to differentiate it from other connective tissue disorders and understand the associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old sexually active, unmarried man comes in with a painful sore on...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old sexually active, unmarried man comes in with a painful sore on the glans of his penis. He reports experiencing discomfort and swelling in both of his groin areas. Upon examination, a tender ulcer with distinct, undermined borders that bleeds easily is discovered. Additionally, bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is observed during the examination, and a small sinus is visible above one of the lymph nodes, with pus easily expressed.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Chancroid, Chlamydia, Syphilis, HIV, and gonorrhoeae

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, is a common STD that presents with painful genital ulcers and tender lymphadenopathy. Treatment involves a single dose of azithromycin. Chlamydia, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, may be asymptomatic or present with penile/vaginal discharge or pain. Syphilis, on the other hand, presents with painless genital pustules that eventually ulcerate and does not typically involve lymphadenopathy. HIV, although associated with an increased risk of STDs, does not present with genital ulcers. gonorrhoeae, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, usually presents with penile/vaginal discharge, dysuria, and pelvic pain, but can also be asymptomatic. It is important to practice safe sex and get tested regularly for STDs to prevent their spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      17.6
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia and loss of libido that has been ongoing for the past year. She has already been evaluated by a gynaecologist and discharged as all her tests were normal. She has undergone a pelvic ultrasound, laparoscopy, and blood tests for LH/FSH and TFTs, as well as low vaginal and endocervical swabs. She reports no symptoms of depression or anxiety and maintains a healthy lifestyle with regular exercise, good sleep, and a balanced diet. She denies any substance abuse. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for psychosexual counselling

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Female Sexual Dysfunction

      Psychosexual counselling, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants are all potential treatment options for female sexual dysfunction. However, each option should be carefully considered based on the individual’s symptoms and medical history.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended when there are no physical causes for sexual difficulties. CBT may be appropriate for patients displaying signs of anxiety or depression. The COCP may worsen poor libido and is not without risks. HRT is not indicated for non-menopausal patients. SSRIs can cause loss of libido and are not recommended unless there are symptoms of depression. It is important to discuss all options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
      What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:

      Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.

      Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.

      Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.

      Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.

      Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      24.9
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an 'inadequate sample' result from her cervical smear test. After a repeat test 3 months later, she still receives an 'inadequate sample' result. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test within 3 months

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      In the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical cancer screening involves testing for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) first. If the initial test results in an inadequate sample, it should be repeated after 3 months. If the second test also returns as inadequate, then colposcopy should be performed. This is because without obtaining hr HPV status or performing cytology, the risk of cervical cancer cannot be assessed. It would be unsafe to return the patient to normal recall as this could result in a delayed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test after 3, 6 or 12 months is also not recommended as it may lead to a missed diagnosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman comes to you at 18 weeks’ gestation, feeling very anxious....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to you at 18 weeks’ gestation, feeling very anxious. She spent one day last week taking care of her sick nephew who had cold symptoms, and a few days later, her nephew developed a facial rash resembling a ‘slapped cheek’. The patient informs you that she herself had some myalgia and fever for two days, and today she developed a rash on her trunk and back.
      Upon examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C and there is a maculopapular rash on her trunk and back with a lace-like appearance.
      The blood tests reveal:
      rubella: immunoglobulin M (IgM) negative, immunoglobulin G (IgG) positive
      parvovirus B19: IgM positive, IgG negative.
      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give one dose of varicella-zoster virus (VZV) immunoglobulin and review in five days

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent referral to a specialist Fetal Medicine Unit (to be seen within 4 weeks) and do serial ultrasound scans

      Explanation:

      Management of Parvovirus B19 Infection in Pregnancy

      Parvovirus B19 infection in pregnancy can have detrimental effects on the developing fetus. Therefore, it is important to manage the infection appropriately. Here are some key steps to take:

      1. Arrange urgent referral to a specialist Fetal Medicine Unit (to be seen within 4 weeks) and do serial ultrasound scans to monitor fetal growth and assess for complications.

      2. Arrange fetal blood sampling and transfusion if there is an indication of fetal infection.

      3. Advise the woman to avoid going to work and contact with other pregnant women for at least five days to prevent transmission of the infection.

      4. Give one dose of varicella-zoster virus (VZV) immunoglobulin and review in five days if the woman was exposed to chickenpox and is not immune to VZV.

      5. Suggest paracetamol as required and plenty of fluids at present for the management of myalgia and arthralgia associated with the infection.

      It is important to confirm the diagnosis of parvovirus B19 infection with serology on at least two separate samples and to monitor the woman and fetus closely for potential complications. With appropriate management, the risk of fetal morbidity and mortality can be reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Passmed