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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which his general practitioner could find no reason. After your assessment, you organise an ultrasound scan of the abdomen to rule out any pathology and incidentally find out that the patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      Which statement best applies to an AAA?

      Your Answer: Patients presenting with a leak should be taken to theatre immediately without assessment by computed tomography (CT) scan

      Correct Answer: Surveillance is carried out with CT scanning or ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Diagnosis, Monitoring, and Treatment

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious medical condition that require careful monitoring and prompt treatment. Diagnosis is typically done through ultrasound screening, with men being invited for screening during their 65th year. Once an AAA is detected, monitoring is done through CT scanning or ultrasound, with the frequency of scans increasing as the aneurysm grows in size. If a leak is suspected, immediate surgical intervention is necessary, although a CT scan may be performed first to assess the extent of the leak. Surgery is typically done when the aneurysm reaches a diameter of 5.5 cm or greater, with repair options including open surgery with a synthetic graft or endovascular repair. Patients may present with central and upper abdominal pain radiating to their back, and misdiagnosis as renal colic can be fatal. Understanding the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of AAAs is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man was brought into the Emergency Department with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man was brought into the Emergency Department with sudden onset of severe back pain lasting 20 min. The pain was constant and not exacerbated by coughing or sneezing. On examination, the patient was in shock, with a palpable 8-cm mass deep in the epigastrium above the umbilicus. His past medical history includes a 6-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed 2 years ago at the time of cholecystectomy. The patient is a non-smoker and drinks 2 pints of beer a week.
      Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Sudden-Onset Severe Back Pain

      When a patient presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In the case of a male patient with increasing age and a known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, a rupturing aneurysm should be suspected until proven otherwise. This is especially true if there is associated shock and a large palpable mass deep in the epigastrium. Blood initially leaks into the retroperitoneal space, causing severe back pain, before blowing out into the peritoneal cavity. Acute cholecystitis is unlikely if the patient has had a previous cholecystectomy. Acute pancreatitis may present with epigastric pain, but this patient does not have other symptoms consistent with the condition. Herniated lumbar disc pain is usually worsened by coughing or sneezing and radiates down the leg, which is not the case here. Aortic dissection could present similarly, but given the known history of a large aortic aneurysm, a rupture is more likely. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible diagnoses and take appropriate action to manage the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central abdominal pain. The...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central abdominal pain. The pain started very suddenly, is described as severe and radiates through to his back. He has a past medical history of hypertension. On examination, the patient looks unwell, with some bruising around his flanks.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Heart rate (HR) 118 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 98/62 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate (RR) 28 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 95% on air 94–98%
      Temperature 36 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      There is generalised tenderness upon palpation of the abdomen.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured AAA

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain and Bruising

      When a patient presents with abdominal pain and bruising, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In this case, a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is the most likely explanation, given the patient’s history and examination findings. This is a serious condition with high mortality, and urgent surgical intervention is required if AAA is suspected. To avoid further complications, blood pressure should be maintained at less than 100 mmHg.

      Other potential diagnoses that should be ruled out include pancreatitis, renal artery stenosis, appendicitis, and aortic dissection. Pancreatitis can also cause abdominal pain and bruising, but the patient’s symptoms and signs suggest AAA as the primary concern. Renal artery stenosis typically presents differently and is less likely in this case. Appendicitis can cause central abdominal pain, but it is not the most likely explanation here. Aortic dissection can cause pain radiating to the back, but the location and severity of the pain in this patient do not fit with that diagnosis. Overall, prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment and management of abdominal pain and bruising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man comes to the vascular clinic with a complaint of leg...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the vascular clinic with a complaint of leg pain during exercise. He reports that the pain occurs in both calves, with the left side being slightly worse than the right. The pain starts after walking a few meters and subsides when he sits down. The patient has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and glaucoma. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history but quit smoking ten years ago when he was diagnosed with diabetes.
      You conduct an Ankle: Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) test on the man and find that his left leg ABPI is 0.8, while his right leg ABPI is 0.9. What would be your initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Optimise control of diabetes, ensure he is compliant with his statin, supervised exercise programme for 3 month and prescribe 75 mg of clopidogrel daily

      Explanation:

      Management of Intermittent Claudication in a Patient with Multiple Risk Factors

      Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of arterial disease and can be caused by multiple risk factors, including smoking, diabetes, and hypercholesterolaemia. In managing a patient with intermittent claudication, it is important to first assess their ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurement to determine the severity of their arterial disease.

      For patients with ABPI measurements between 0.6-0.9, first-line treatment involves managing risk factors and encouraging supervised exercise for three months. This patient should be optimally controlled for diabetes and compliant with their statin medication. Additionally, they should be prescribed 75 mg of clopidogrel daily to reduce the risk of blood clots.

      A duplex USS arteriogram of both legs should be conducted to assess the extent of arterial disease. If necessary, a contrast-enhanced MRI may be used to plan revascularisation. However, surgery is typically only considered as a third-line treatment option.

      It is important to note that analgesia is not the first-line treatment for intermittent claudication. Instead, addressing risk factors and enrolling in a supervised exercise programme for three months should be prioritised. Patients should be encouraged to exercise for two hours a week, to the maximum point of pain.

      In summary, managing intermittent claudication in a patient with multiple risk factors involves a comprehensive approach that addresses risk factors, encourages exercise, and may involve further diagnostic testing and medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
      What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.

      An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.

      For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.

      Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 6 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his left leg, below the knee. This pain came on suddenly an hour ago, after walking to his bathroom. He knows that he gets claudication on walking over 250 metres, and is unsure if this pain is the same. His medical history includes hypertension, controlled with amlodipine 5 mg od. On examination, his left leg below the knee is pale, cold and numb, with absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, but present pulses on his right leg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: Embolectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Limb Ischaemia: Embolectomy and Thrombolysis

      Acute limb ischaemia can be caused by either an embolus or a thrombosis. The diagnosis is clinical and can be remembered using the 6Ps: Pale, Pulseless, Paraesthesia, Pain, Paralysis, and Perishingly cold. In the case of an embolic cause, urgent embolectomy using a Fogarty catheter to retrieve the clot is the appropriate treatment. Post-embolectomy, patients should be anticoagulated with IV heparin and then switched over to warfarin.

      Thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment if the ischaemia is caused by a thrombosis. However, based on the clinical history, if the patient has an embolic cause, thrombolysis is not recommended. Thrombosis tends to present over hours to days, with a history of claudication and is less severe as collateral blood supply develops. Contralateral pulses tend to be absent.

      Amputation below the right knee is an effective treatment but should only be considered by experienced consultants as it will have serious long-term implications for patients. Because the man has presented relatively quickly, it is unlikely that amputation will be required.

      High dose warfarin is not a treatment for acute limb ischaemia. The clot needs to be removed.

      Angiography is not performed when complete occlusion is suggested by the clinical picture, as it introduces a delay in revascularisation. In an incomplete occlusion, angiography is used to place stents to open the vessels.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for acute limb ischaemia caused by an embolus is embolectomy, while thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment for ischaemia caused by a thrombosis. Amputation should only be considered as a last resort, and high dose warfarin is not a treatment option. Angiography and stenting are only used in cases of incomplete occlusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old woman, a smoker, presents to the Emergency Department at 28 weeks’...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman, a smoker, presents to the Emergency Department at 28 weeks’ gestation with a swollen left lower leg. She reported experiencing some pain and swelling in both legs in the past week, but woke up this morning with the left leg being tender and red.
      Her medical history is unremarkable, but she is feeling short of breath and her vital signs are stable.
      Upon examination, there is bilateral lower limb swelling, with the left side being significantly more swollen and painful upon palpation. The skin is also warm to the touch. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows no abnormalities.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound Doppler of left lower leg

      Correct Answer: Commence low-molecular-weight heparin treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, a swollen, erythematosus, and painful leg is treated as a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) until proven otherwise. A risk assessment should be performed at the booking visit to identify factors that increase the likelihood of venous thromboembolism (VTE). If a pregnant patient presents with symptoms suspicious of a DVT, treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin should be administered immediately, provided there are no contraindications. Treatment should not be delayed until investigations are performed, but if a Doppler scan of the deep veins in the legs precludes the diagnosis of DVT, treatment can be discontinued.

      If investigations confirm DVT, treatment should continue throughout pregnancy and for 6 weeks postpartum, with a total of at least 3 months of treatment. Contraindications to low-molecular-weight heparin include heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, allergy, haemorrhagic disorders, recent cerebral haemorrhage, peptic ulceration, and active bleeding. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the standard method for diagnosing a pulmonary embolus, but due to the risk of radiation to the fetus, a ventilation-perfusion scan is used as first-line in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy, but may be considered as an alternative to heparin in cases where heparin is contraindicated and a VTE is diagnosed, following discussion with the haematology team.

      If a leg Doppler confirms a DVT, no further investigation is required, and the patient can continue on treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin. However, if a Doppler shows no evidence of DVT, a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out a cause of shortness of breath such as pneumonia. If the chest X-ray is negative, a ventilation-perfusion scan should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolus. Ultrasound Doppler is the gold standard for diagnosing DVT and is essential in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and was diagnosed with an AAA measuring 4.2 cm at its widest diameter. What would be the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Three-monthly monitoring with ultrasound scanning

      Correct Answer: Annual monitoring with ultrasound scanning

      Explanation:

      Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that affects men aged 65 and over, putting them at risk of developing an enlarged aorta. To manage this condition, different approaches are taken depending on the size of the aneurysm.

      Annual Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
      Men aged 65 and over are offered screening via ultrasound scanning during the year they turn 65. Patients diagnosed with a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm in diameter) are invited to return annually for monitoring. They are also given lifestyle advice, including smoking cessation, diet, and exercise.

      Discharge with Reassurance
      Patients with a normal result (measurement of <3 cm in diameter) are discharged and do not require further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to progress to a dangerous extent. Three-Monthly Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
      Patients with a medium-sized AAA (4.5-5.4 cm in diameter) are offered three-monthly ultrasound scanning.

      Referral to a Specialist Surgeon within Two Weeks for Further Assessment
      Patients with a large AAA (5.5 cm or more in diameter) are referred to a specialist surgeon to be seen within two weeks to discuss treatment options. Surgical repair is usually advised, as long as there are no contraindications to surgery.

      Immediate Admission under a Surgical Team for Surgical Repair
      Emergency repair is not indicated for an aneurysm measuring 4.2 cm. Emergency repair is usually only indicated if a patient has a leaking or ruptured aortic aneurysm.

      Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) According to Size

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided swelling in his right leg. He reports that this is more noticeable in the evenings. During clinical examination, the right leg is swollen, but there is no redness or excessive warmth upon touch. He is in good health otherwise. He had undergone surgery in the past to treat prostate cancer.

      What is the initial investigation that should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Lymphoscintigram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Lymphoedema: Choosing the Right One

      Lymphoedema is a condition characterized by swelling in the limbs due to the accumulation of lymphatic fluid. While clinical examination can often diagnose lymphoedema, further investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other possible causes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be requested and their relevance in diagnosing lymphoedema:

      Lymphoscintigram: This is the first-line investigation to confirm lymphoedema. It involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the affected limb and then imaging the lymphatic system to assess the flow of lymphatic fluid.

      Blood smear: A blood smear may be requested if filariasis is suspected as a cause of lymphoedema. This test involves examining a blood sample under a microscope to look for the presence of microfilariae, which are the larvae of filarial worms.

      Computed tomography (CT) scan: CT scans are less useful in evaluating lymphoedema as they do not provide specific information about soft tissues.

      Genetic testing: Genetic testing is useful in diagnosing primary lymphoedema, which can be caused by genetic mutations. However, it is less likely to be relevant in cases of secondary lymphoedema, which is more commonly caused by surgery, infection, or trauma.

      Ultrasound: While not useful in diagnosing lymphoedema, ultrasound may be helpful in ruling out other possible causes of limb swelling, such as deep vein thrombosis.

      In summary, the choice of diagnostic test for lymphoedema depends on the suspected cause and the clinical presentation of the patient. A lymphoscintigram is the most useful test for confirming lymphoedema, while other tests may be requested to rule out other possible causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic, complaining of severe pain in both legs, even at rest. On examination, he had chronic ulceration of his toes.
      Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Buerger’s disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. This disease affects medium-sized and small arteries, particularly the tibial and radial arteries, and can extend to veins and nerves of the extremities. It is most commonly seen in heavy cigarette-smoking men, but there has been an increase in cases among women due to changing smoking trends. The disease typically begins before the age of 35 and causes severe pain, even at rest, due to neural involvement. Chronic ulcerations and gangrene can occur as later complications. Abstinence from smoking in the early stages can prevent further attacks. Other possible conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Kawasaki’s disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Takayasu’s arthritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Vascular (5/10) 50%
Passmed