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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain. The pain started yesterday when she was lifting a heavy item at her workplace. She is otherwise fit and well, and not on any regular medications.
      Which of the following features would suggest an urgent hospital admission should be arranged?

      Your Answer: Loss of perineal sensation

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms of Lower Back Pain: Red Flags and Reassuring Signs

      Lower back pain is a common complaint, but it can sometimes be a sign of a more serious condition. Here are some symptoms to look out for:

      – Loss of perineal sensation: This is a red flag symptom for cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency. Urgent admission should be arranged if suspected.
      – Shooting pain down the leg: This is a common symptom of sciatica, which is typically not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Back pain worsened by coughing or sneezing: This is a common feature of back pain and is not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
      – Downgoing plantar reflexes: This is a reassuring finding and indicates normal plantar reflexes.
      – Pain remaining after 1 week: Acute lower back pain typically improves over 4-6 weeks, so it is not unusual for pain to remain after 1 week. Referral to physiotherapy may be warranted if the patient is not resuming their normal activities.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which diuretic inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl- in the thick ascending limb of...

    Correct

    • Which diuretic inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl- in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Types of Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action

      Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and edema. There are different types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action.

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, inhibit the co-transport of Na+/K+/2Cl− in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to a significant increase in sodium and chloride concentration in the filtrate and massive diuresis.

      Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone, act as aldosterone antagonists, causing an increase in sodium excretion and a decrease in K+ and H+ excretion in the collecting tubules.

      Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, inhibit NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule, resulting in a moderate increase in sodium excretion and moderate diuresis.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, like acetazolamide, increase bicarbonate excretion in the proximal convoluted tubule. While not commonly used as a diuretic, it is used to treat glaucoma, prevent altitude sickness, and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.

      Mannitol is a strong diuretic that remains in the lumen in a high concentration and retains water in the collecting systems by osmotic effect. Its use is controversial, but it is thought to reduce intracranial pressure by osmotically extracting water from CSF and brain parenchyma into the blood.

      Understanding the different types of diuretics and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals choose the appropriate medication for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of sudden-onset pain in his left scrotum that makes walking difficult. On examination, his left testicle is firm and diffusely tender.
      What is the most urgent management option?

      Your Answer: Scrotal exploration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. One of the main differential diagnoses to consider in a patient with scrotal pain is testicular torsion. If there is a high suspicion of torsion, emergency exploration surgery should not be delayed by investigations.

      During scrotal exploration, the affected testicle is inspected for viability. If viable, detorsion and orchidopexy are performed. However, if the testicle is non-viable, it must be removed. The salvage rate for detorsion within 6 hours of symptom onset is >95%, but this drops to <10% after 24 hours. While antibiotics and analgesia are appropriate for epididymo-orchitis, ruling out testicular torsion is the priority. Urinalysis may be helpful in borderline cases, but an abnormal result does not exclude testicular torsion. Doppler ultrasound scan of the testes may also be useful, but if there is a high suspicion of torsion, scrotal exploration must not be delayed by investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-week old infant has been admitted to the hospital due to concerns...

    Correct

    • A 7-week old infant has been admitted to the hospital due to concerns from her father about her inability to keep down feeds. The father reports that shortly after being fed, the baby forcefully vomits up uncurdled milk. He is anxious because the baby does not seem to be gaining weight. Based on the probable diagnosis, what metabolic irregularity is the patient expected to exhibit?

      Your Answer: Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is the probable diagnosis when a newborn experiences non-bilious vomiting during the first few weeks of life. This condition results in the loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) from the stomach contents, leading to hypochloremia and potassium loss. The metabolic alkalosis is caused by the depletion of hydrogen ions due to the vomiting of stomach acid.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
      What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)

      Correct Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall, she complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever she moves her head or looks up, eg to hang laundry on her washing line outside. She denies loss of consciousness and did not injure herself during the fall. Her past medical history consists of osteoarthritis of the knees and lower back.
      On examination, her gait and balance and neurological examination are normal and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Admit for brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The best first-line management option for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre, which can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis. Medications such as prochlorperazine or betahistine may help with symptoms in the short term, but they do not treat the underlying cause. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective if symptoms persist despite the Epley manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on a wet kitchen floor and fell onto her outstretched hand. Her X-ray shows a fracture within 2.5 cm of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement of the distal segment and avulsion of the ulnar styloid.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colles’ fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Fractures of the Wrist: Colles’, Smith’s, Barton’s, and Chauffeur’s Fractures

      Fractures of the wrist are common injuries, with the most frequent being the Colles’ fracture. This type of fracture occurs within 2.5 cm of the wrist and is often seen in elderly women who suffer a fall onto an outstretched hand. The Colles’ fracture is characterized by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment, radial displacement of the hand, radial shortening due to impaction, and avulsion of the ulnar styloid. Treatment involves assessing the patient’s neurovascular status, followed by reduction and fixation of the fracture with a Colles’ plaster.

      Another type of wrist fracture is the Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture with ventral displacement of the distal fragment. This injury often results from a fall onto the back of the hand. A Barton’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dorsal or volar subluxation of the distal fragment, similar to a Colles’ or reverse Colles’ fracture. Finally, a Chauffeur’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process.

      In conclusion, wrist fractures are common injuries that can be classified into different types based on their location and displacement. Proper assessment and treatment are essential for optimal recovery and function of the affected wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old primiparous woman delivers her first child via caesarean section at 38...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primiparous woman delivers her first child via caesarean section at 38 weeks. Both the mother and baby are in good health after delivery, and there are no complications during the postoperative period. As part of the routine post-birth checks, a sample of umbilical cord blood is collected and analysed, revealing a glucose level of 2.4 mmol/L. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give IV 10% dextrose

      Correct Answer: Encourage early feeding and monitor blood glucose

      Explanation:

      For neonatal hypoglycaemia, the correct course of action is to encourage early feeding and monitor blood glucose. Asymptomatic hypoglycaemia is common in newborns and not a cause for concern. Therefore, encouraging early feeding, either through bottle or breast, and monitoring blood glucose until it normalizes is sufficient. Admitting the baby to the neonatal unit for further monitoring is unnecessary at this point, as observations are normal and the baby is doing well. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not enough, as feeding is necessary for the glucose levels to normalize. No action is not an option, as it is important to take steps to resolve the hypoglycaemic episode, even if it is mild and asymptomatic.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently...

    Correct

    • You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently discharged from a psychiatry ward after a suicide attempt. He was switched from sertraline to venlafaxine. His husband says his mood is okay but over the last 2 weeks, he became erratic and was not sleeping. He spoke fast about a 'handsome inheritance' he got but was gambling away their savings saying he was going to save the world. When confronted he became angry and accused him of trying to 'steal his energy'. You suspect he's developed mania and refer him to the crisis psychiatry team.

      What do you anticipate will be the subsequent step in management?

      Your Answer: Stop venlafaxine and start risperidone

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with mania or hypomania who is taking antidepressants, it is important to consider stopping the antidepressant and starting antipsychotic therapy. In this case, the correct course of action would be to stop venlafaxine and start risperidone. Antidepressants can trigger mania or hypomania as a side effect, particularly with SSRIs and TCAs, and venlafaxine has a particularly high risk. NICE guidance recommends stopping the antidepressant and offering an antipsychotic, with haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone as options. Cross-tapering the patient back to sertraline or mirtazapine and adding sodium valproate modified-release is not recommended. Prescribing a two-week course of oral clonazepam is also not recommended due to the risk of overdose. Starting lithium is not recommended as first-line for the management of acute mania in patients who are not already on antipsychotics.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed