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Question 1
Incorrect
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The following statements concern the sensory innervation of the nasal passage:
Your Answer: posteriorly the floor of the nose is supplied by the superior dental nerves
Correct Answer: the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve supplies the vestibule
Explanation:The walls of the anterior nasal passage are supplied by the anterior ethmoidal branch of the nasociliary nerve, and the floor is innervated by the superior dental nerve (not the sphenopalatine nerves).
The walls and floor of the posterior nasal passage are innervated by the long and short sphenopalatine nerves and the great palatine nerve (not the superior dental nerves and the nasociliary nerve).
The vestibule is innervated by small branches of the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve.
The nasopharynx is innervated by the sensory branches of the trigeminal nerve (not the great palatine nerve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI. What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?
Your Answer: Ascending aorta
Explanation:The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.
The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.
The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.
The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.
The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.
The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?
Your Answer: Is increased by valproate
Correct Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase
Explanation:Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.
Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.
The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.
Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Correct
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During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?
Your Answer: Randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.
For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Correct
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The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?
Your Answer: Subclavian artery
Explanation:The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein
Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.
One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months. Her thyroid function tests are as follows: TSH: 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L), T3: 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L), T4: 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L). What will explain this biochemical picture?
Your Answer: Tissue level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication
Explanation:In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .
In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.
Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.
Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor β gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:
Generalised resistance (GrTH)
Pituitary resistance (PrTH)Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.
Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:
Warfarin
Rifampin
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
St John’s Wort
CarbamazepineThese drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?
Your Answer: Variable pressure, variable orifice - water depression flowmeter
Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters
Explanation:There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The statement that best describes temperature management is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gauge thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries. What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription. He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery. The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa. What is the name of this structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.
The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.
The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms
Explanation:Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O
The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.
The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The prostate and the rectum are separated by which anatomical plane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia
Explanation:The prostate is separated from the rectum by the Denonvilliers fascia (rectoprostatic fascia).
Waldeyers fascia functions to separate the rectum and the sacrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis. Clinical examination is as follows: Airway: Patent Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added. Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries. Pulse: 125 beats per minute, BP: 125/96 mmHg. Disability: Glasgow coma score 15,|Anxious and in pain. Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established. Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.
Explanation:Selective α1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of α2 blocking action.
The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).
Its half-life is approximately three hours.
It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What structure is most posterior at the porta hepatis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The structures in the porta hepatis from anterior to posterior are:
The ducts: Most anterior are the left and right hepatic ducts.
The arteries: Next are the left and right hepatic arteries
The veins: Next is the portal vein
The epiploic foramen of Winslow lies most posterior at the porta hepatis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)
Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.
Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery. Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.
The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In medical testing, there are true negative, true positive, false positive and false negative results for some test. How are the sensitivity of these predictive tests calculated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
Explanation:The following terms are used in medical testing:
True negative – The test is negative and the patient does not have the disease.
True positive – The test is positive and the patient has the disease.
False positive – The test is positive but the patient does not have the disease.
False negative – The test is negative but the patient has the disease.The sensitivity of a predictive test = true positives / (true positives + false negatives).
The specificity of a test = true negatives / (false positives + true negatives).
The negative predictive value of a test = true negatives / (false negatives + true negatives).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mandibular artery
Explanation:The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery (terminal branch)
8. Superficial temporal artery (terminal branch)There is no mandibular artery but the first part of the maxillary artery is called the mandibular part as it is posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
The maxillary artery is divided into three portions by its relation to the lateral pterygoid muscle:
first (mandibular) part: posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle
second (pterygoid or muscular) part: within the lateral pterygoid muscle
third (pterygopalatine) part: anterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure
Explanation:BMR is lower in females than males.
It decreases with increasing age.
There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)
BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.
The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.
The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.
The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).
An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.
Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.
The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.
Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU. Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on α1 receptors and also on β receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion is increased following haematemesis
Explanation:Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.
Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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