00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium: 2.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate: 1.6 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - PTH: 2.05 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
      - Urea: 32.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine: 160 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D: 56 nmol/L (optimal level >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CKD 5

      Correct Answer: Acute renal failure

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration-Induced Acute Kidney Injury

      The biochemical indicators suggest that the patient is experiencing acute renal failure or acute kidney injury due to dehydration. The slightly elevated levels of calcium and phosphate indicate haemoconcentration, while the significantly increased urea levels compared to creatinine suggest AKI. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is common in AKI, but in a patient with stable chronic kidney disease, it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.

      It is important to note that chronic kidney disease often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of PTH (secondary hyperparathyroidism in compensation for hypocalcaemia), and anaemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Therefore, the absence of these indicators in the patient’s blood work supports the diagnosis of dehydration-induced AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      296.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with lung cancer was admitted to the Emergency department due...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with lung cancer was admitted to the Emergency department due to respiratory distress. Upon examination, his ECG revealed electrical alternans. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Constrictive pericarditis

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Pericardial Tamponade: Commonly Caused by Malignant Diseases

      Pericardial tamponade is a condition where the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, becomes filled with fluid or blood, putting pressure on the heart and preventing it from functioning properly. Malignant diseases are the most common cause of pericardial tamponade, often resulting from malignant infiltration associated with a large effusion. However, tamponade can also occur as a result of any type of pericarditis.

      When pericardial tamponade occurs, the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and low blood pressure. Diagnosis is typically made through imaging tests such as echocardiography or CT scans.

      On an electrocardiogram (ECG), sinus tachycardia, low volume, and electrical alternans – variability of the complexes – are often observed. Treatment for pericardial tamponade typically involves draining the fluid or blood from the pericardium, either through a needle or a surgical procedure. In severe cases, emergency surgery may be necessary to prevent further damage to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with increasing osteoarthritic discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with increasing osteoarthritic discomfort in his knees, wrists, and fingers. He has a history of hypertension and a left-sided stroke. His current medications include lisinopril, metoprolol, atorvastatin, and ibuprofen. He has no known drug allergies. What medication could potentially relieve his joint pain?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Naproxen

      Explanation:

      MHRA Guidance on Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Safety

      The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), after a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, it is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.

      The MHRA’s updated guidance on diclofenac and cardiovascular safety highlights the increased risk of cardiovascular events associated with this NSAID compared to other NSAIDs. Patients with certain conditions are advised to avoid diclofenac and switch to other NSAIDs. This guidance is important for healthcare professionals to consider when prescribing NSAIDs to patients with cardiovascular risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      273.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the GP with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the GP with concerns about her daughter's lack of menstrual periods and cyclical pain. Upon examination, the daughter appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay

      Correct Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      The topic of primary amenorrhoea is being discussed, where the patient is experiencing cyclical pain but has not had any evidence of menstruation. This eliminates certain possibilities such as mullerian agenesis and constitutional delay, which are typically painless. Turner syndrome is also unlikely as it is often accompanied by distinct physical features and health issues. Pregnancy cannot be ruled out entirely, but it is improbable given the patient’s lack of menarche and cyclical pain. Therefore, imperforate hymen is the most probable diagnosis.

      Amenorrhoea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be primary (when menarche has never occurred) or secondary (when the patient has not had periods for more than six months despite having had them in the past). Primary amenorrhoea is diagnosed if the patient has not had a period by the age of 14 without any secondary sexual characteristics, or over the age of 16 if such characteristics are present. The causes of primary amenorrhoea can include constitutional delay (when the patient is a late bloomer but has secondary sexual characteristics) or anatomical issues such as mullerian agenesis (where the patient has varying degrees of absence of female sexual organs despite developing secondary sexual characteristics).

      Common Causes of Delayed Puberty

      Delayed puberty is a condition where the onset of puberty is later than the normal age range. This can be caused by various factors such as genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and chronic illnesses. Delayed puberty with short stature is often associated with Turner’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome. These conditions affect the growth and development of the body, resulting in a shorter stature.

      On the other hand, delayed puberty with normal stature can be caused by polycystic ovarian syndrome, androgen insensitivity, Kallmann syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome. These conditions affect the production and regulation of hormones, which can lead to delayed puberty.

      It is important to note that delayed puberty does not necessarily mean there is a serious underlying condition. However, it is recommended to consult a healthcare professional if there are concerns about delayed puberty. Treatment options may include hormone therapy or addressing any underlying medical conditions.

      In summary, delayed puberty can be caused by various factors and can be associated with different genetic disorders. It is important to seek medical advice if there are concerns about delayed puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full blood count reveals a serum Hb of 104 g/L and MCV of 104 fL. Hypersegmented neutrophils are observed on a blood film. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. What is the probable reason for her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency

      Explanation:

      The macrocytic anaemia revealed by the full blood count is indicative of a megaloblastic anaemia, as per the blood films. This type of anaemia can be caused by a deficiency in folate or B12. Given that folic acid deficiency is prevalent during pregnancy, it is the most probable cause in this instance. Additionally, the likelihood of coeliac disease exacerbating malabsorption further supports this conclusion.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man has been involved in a motorbike accident. Although he is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been involved in a motorbike accident. Although he is not seriously injured, he has sustained a skin flap on the dorsal surface of his wrist after hitting it against a wall. Upon examination, it is observed that the extensor pollicis longus tendon is exposed and can be seen changing direction around a bony projection. What is the name of this bony feature?

      Your Answer: Hook of the hamate

      Correct Answer: Dorsal tubercle of the radius

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Wrist Bones

      The wrist is a complex joint composed of eight small bones called carpal bones. Each bone has its own unique features and functions. Here are some of the notable bony prominences found in the wrist:

      1. Dorsal tubercle of the radius (Lister tubercle): This is a bump located on the back of the radius bone, which serves as an attachment site for the extensor pollicis longus muscle.

      2. Hook of the hamate: This is a curved projection on the hamate bone, which is one of the attachment points for the flexor retinaculum.

      3. Head of the capitate: This is a rounded surface on the capitate bone, which sits between the lunate and scaphoid bones.

      4. Styloid process of ulna: This is a pointed projection on the ulna bone, which serves as the attachment site for the ulnar collateral ligament of the wrist.

      5. Tubercle of scaphoid: This is a small bump on the front of the scaphoid bone.

      Understanding the anatomy of these wrist bones can help in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR

      Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.

      Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s disease

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement about hearing aids and cochlear implants is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about hearing aids and cochlear implants is false?

      Your Answer: A cochlear implant may be suitable for someone with a bilateral severe to profound hearing loss

      Correct Answer: Hearing aids and cochlear implants function in a similar way and are essentially amplifiers of sound

      Explanation:

      Hearing Aids vs Cochlear Implants

      A hearing aid is a device that consists of a microphone, an amplifier, and an earphone. It amplifies incoming sound and delivers it to the outer ear, relying on the normal anatomical and physiological mechanisms of hearing. Recent technology has enabled some manipulation of the input sound, such as filtering out background noise. Hearing aids are helpful for people with mild to moderate hearing loss and, in some cases, moderate to severe loss.

      On the other hand, a cochlear implant is not a powerful hearing aid. It bypasses the mechanisms of the outer and middle ear and artificially recreates sound by providing direct electrical stimulation via electrodes situated in the cochlear. The external component, called a speech processor, detects sound via a microphone, extracts useful sound, and changes it into a radio frequency signal transmitted through the skin. The internal portion detects this signal and decodes it, providing stimulation to the appropriate electrode for a given frequency of sound.

      For people with severe to profound hearing loss, cochlear implants provide not only more sound but also clarity of sound. In contrast, hearing aids often only provide amplified noise and little useful sound for these individuals. Many long-term hearing aid users with progressive hearing loss or sudden worsening of hearing go on to receive a cochlear implant and receive great benefit.

      In summary, while hearing aids and cochlear implants both aim to improve hearing, they differ in their mechanisms and effectiveness for different levels of hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Passmed