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  • Question 1 - A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department with chest...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department with chest injuries after a canister was thrown into a fire and the explosive projectile struck the patient's chest wall. On examination, there is asymmetry of the chest. You observe that the chest wall moves inward during inhalation and outward during expiration.

      What is the term for this clinical sign?

      Your Answer: Paradoxical breathing

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario is exhibiting a clinical sign known as paradoxical breathing. This is characterized by an abnormal movement of the chest wall during respiration. Normally, the chest expands during inhalation and contracts during exhalation. However, in paradoxical breathing, the opposite occurs. The chest wall moves inward during inhalation and outward during exhalation. This can be seen in cases of chest trauma or injury, where there is a disruption in the normal mechanics of breathing.

      Further Reading:

      Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.

      The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.

      In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.

      Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 2 - You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a...

    Correct

    • You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a stab wound to the chest. During your examination, you observe air bubbling from the wound, indicating a potential sucking chest wound. What is the primary intervention that should be prioritized in managing this injury?

      Your Answer: Application of an occlusive dressing with one side left open

      Explanation:

      Dressings that function as flutter valves are beneficial in the initial treatment of open pneumothorax. The first step involves applying an occlusive dressing that covers the wound, with one side intentionally left open to create a flutter-valve effect. Alternatively, a chest seal device can be used. The occlusive dressing should be square or rectangular in shape, with three sides securely sealed and one side left unsealed. When the patient inhales, the dressing is drawn against the chest wall, preventing air from entering the chest cavity. However, during exhalation, air can still escape through the open side of the dressing. Another option is to use a chest seal device that includes a built-in one-way (flutter) valve. Definitive management typically involves surgical intervention to repair the defect and address any other injuries. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) also recommends surgery as the definitive treatment, as inserting a chest drain may disrupt tissues that could otherwise be used to cover the defect with muscle flaps.

      Further Reading:

      An open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound, occurs when air enters the pleural space due to an open chest wound or physical defect. This can lead to ineffective ventilation, causing hypoxia and hypercarbia. Air can enter the pleural cavity passively or be sucked in during inspiration, leading to lung collapse on that side. Sucking wounds can be heard audibly as air passes through the chest defect, and entry wounds are usually visible.

      To manage an open pneumothorax, respiratory compromise can be alleviated by covering the wound with a dressing or using a chest seal device. It is important to ensure that one side of the dressing is not occluded, allowing the dressing to function as a flutter valve and prevent significant air ingress during inspiration while allowing air to escape the pleural cavity. If tension pneumothorax is suspected after applying a dressing, the dressing may need to be temporarily removed for decompression.

      Intubation and intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) can be used to ventilate the patient and alleviate respiratory distress. Definitive management involves either inserting a chest drain or surgically repairing the defect. Surgical repair is typically preferred, especially for large wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her neck is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient. He is unable to pass an endotracheal tube, and he decides to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.
      Which of the following statements regarding needle cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?

      Your Answer: The cricothyroid membrane is located directly below the cricoid cartilage

      Explanation:

      A needle cricothyroidotomy is a procedure used in emergency situations to provide oxygenation when intubation and oxygenation are not possible. It is typically performed when a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated. There are certain conditions that make this procedure contraindicated, such as local infection, distorted anatomy, previous failed attempts, and swelling or mass lesions.

      To perform a needle cricothyroidotomy, the necessary equipment should be assembled and prepared. The patient should be positioned supine with their neck in a neutral position. The neck should be cleaned in a sterile manner using antiseptic swabs. If time allows, the area should be anesthetized locally. A 12 or 14 gauge over-the-needle catheter should be assembled to a 10 mL syringe.

      The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage, should be identified anteriorly. The trachea should be stabilized with the thumb and forefinger of one hand. Using the other hand, the skin should be punctured in the midline with the needle over the cricothyroid membrane. The needle should be directed at a 45° angle caudally while negative pressure is applied to the syringe. Needle aspiration should be maintained as the needle is inserted through the lower half of the cricothyroid membrane, with air aspiration indicating entry into the tracheal lumen.

      Once the needle is in place, the syringe and needle should be removed while the catheter is advanced to the hub. The oxygen catheter should be attached and the airway secured. It is important to be aware of possible complications, such as technique failure, cannula obstruction or dislodgement, injury to local structures, and surgical emphysema if high flow oxygen is administered through a malpositioned cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 4 - A 15 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department after being kicked by a horse multiple times. The patient had recently started work cleaning stables and was kicked several times whilst behind one of the horses. The patients observations are shown below:

      Parameter Result
      Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
      Pulse rate 124 bpm
      Respiration rate 30 rpm
      SpO2 95% on air

      On examination there is significant bruising to the right anterolateral aspect of the chest wall, the patient is clammy, there is reduced air entry with dull percussion to the right lung base and the trachea is central. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Massive haemothorax

      Explanation:

      Massive haemothorax is characterized by the presence of more than 1.5 litres of blood in the pleural space. The patient’s history and examination findings are indicative of haemothorax. When blood loss exceeds 1500ml, it is classified as grade 3 hypovolemic shock, which is considered severe. Symptoms such as a pulse rate over 120, respiration rate over 30, and low blood pressure align with grade 3 shock and are consistent with massive haemothorax. In the case of pneumothorax, percussion reveals a resonant or hyper-resonant sound. Chylothorax, on the other hand, is a rare condition that typically occurs due to injury to the thoracic duct.

      Further Reading:

      Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.

      The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.

      In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 5 - You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department by ambulance following a fall from a second-floor balcony. The patient reports experiencing upper abdominal discomfort, which raises concerns about potential hepatic and splenic injuries. In the trauma setting, which imaging modality would be considered the gold standard for assessing these organs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      CT scan is considered the most reliable imaging technique for diagnosing intra-abdominal conditions. It is also considered the gold standard for evaluating organ damage. However, it is crucial to carefully consider the specific circumstances before using CT scan, as it may not be suitable for unstable patients or those who clearly require immediate surgical intervention. In such cases, other methods like FAST can be used to detect fluid in the abdominal cavity, although it is not as accurate in assessing injuries to solid organs or hollow structures within the abdomen.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her vehicle was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway blockage. Her cervical spine is immobilized in three places.

      Which two fundamental airway techniques are recommended by ATLS guidelines to clear the airway in trauma patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chin-lift and jaw-thrust manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      The most recent ATLS guidelines recommend using either the jaw-thrust or chin-lift techniques as the initial approach to open the airway in trauma patients. It is important to avoid moving the head and neck in patients with suspected cervical spine injuries. However, if the patient is unconscious and does not have a gag reflex, temporarily placing an oropharyngeal airway can be beneficial.

      To perform the chin-lift technique, gently place your fingers under the mandible and lift it upwards to bring the chin forward. Use your thumb to slightly depress the lower lip and open the mouth. Alternatively, you can place your thumb behind the lower incisors while gently lifting the chin. It is crucial not to hyperextend the neck during the chin-lift technique.

      For the jaw thrust technique, place one hand on each side of the mandible and push it forward. This can be done in conjunction with a bag-mask device to achieve a good seal and provide adequate ventilation. Just like with the chin-lift technique, be cautious not to extend the patient’s neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 7 - The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing...

    Incorrect

    • The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether they should request a CT head scan for their patient. Which of the following is NOT among the clinical criteria for an urgent CT head scan in an elderly individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 episode of vomiting

      Explanation:

      If an adult with a head injury experiences more than one episode of vomiting, it is recommended to undergo a CT scan of the head. There are several criteria for an urgent CT scan in individuals with a head injury, including a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture (such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign), post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, and being on anticoagulation medication. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation medication who should undergo a CT scan within 8 hours if none of the other signs are present. However, if a patient on anticoagulation medication has any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 8 - A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to...

    Incorrect

    • A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to have experienced a grade III haemorrhage. The patient's weight is approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological indicators aligns with a diagnosis of grade III haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine output of 10 ml/hr

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 9 - A 47 year old male visits the emergency department after injuring his knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old male visits the emergency department after injuring his knee. The patient explains that he extended his leg after tripping on a flight of stairs, but experienced intense pain around the knee when he landed on his foot. Walking has become challenging for the patient. The patient experiences tenderness above the patella and upon examination, the patella appears to be positioned lower than normal. An X-ray of the knee is requested. What is used to evaluate the accurate placement (height) of the patella on the X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insall-Salvati ratio

      Explanation:

      The Insall-Salvati ratio is determined by dividing the length of the patellar tendon (TL) by the length of the patella (PL). This ratio is used to compare the relative lengths of these two structures. A normal ratio is typically 1:1.

      Further Reading:

      A quadriceps tendon tear or rupture is a traumatic lower limb and joint injury that occurs when there is heavy loading on the leg, causing forced contraction of the quadriceps while the foot is planted and the knee is partially bent. These tears most commonly happen at the osteotendinous junction between the tendon and the superior pole of the patella. Quadriceps tendon ruptures are more common than patellar tendon ruptures.

      When a quadriceps tendon tear occurs, the patient usually experiences a tearing sensation and immediate pain. They will then typically complain of pain around the knee and over the tendon. Clinically, there will often be a knee effusion and weakness or inability to actively extend the knee.

      In cases of complete quadriceps tears, the patella will be displaced distally, resulting in a low lying patella or patella infera, also known as patella baja. Radiological measurements, such as the Insall-Salvati ratio, can be used to measure patella height. The Insall-Salvati ratio is calculated by dividing the patellar tendon length by the patellar length. A normal ratio is between 0.8 to 1.2, while a low lying patella (patella baja) is less than 0.8 and a high lying patella (patella alta) is greater than 1.2.

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      • Trauma
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  • Question 10 - A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic...

    Incorrect

    • A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic cardiac arrest. You perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
      What is the accurate anatomical location for the incision that needs to be made?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4th intercostal space from the sternum to the posterior axillary line

      Explanation:

      An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients with traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in patients with right-sided chest injuries and profound hypotension but have not arrested, a right-sided approach is recommended.

      The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
      – An incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line.
      – The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle.
      – The skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided.
      – The parietal pleura is divided, allowing entry into the pleural cavity.
      – The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is placed and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.
      – The anterolateral approach allows access to important anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta.

      In cases where there is suspicion of a right-sided heart injury, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.

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      • Trauma
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving in the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 125 bpm, BP is 92/46 mmHg, respiratory rate 35 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 10 ml. She is anxious and slightly confused. The patient weighs approximately 70 kg.
      How would you classify her hemorrhage according to the ATLS hemorrhagic shock classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class III

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing an increased heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as a decrease in urine output. Additionally, they are feeling anxious and confused. These symptoms indicate that the patient has suffered a class III haemorrhage at this point in time.

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification connects the amount of blood loss to expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg patient. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five liters, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.

      The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is summarized as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, leth

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      • Trauma
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car crash. She was hit by a truck while driving a car and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
      Which of the following is the definition of a massive transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The transfusion of more than 4 units of blood in 1 hour

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

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      • Trauma
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic dispute. A FAST scan is performed, which shows the presence of intra-thoracic free fluid.

      Which of the following organs is most likely to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small bowel

      Explanation:

      Low-velocity gunshot wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. On the other hand, high-velocity gunshot wounds transfer a greater amount of kinetic energy to the abdominal viscera. These types of wounds can cause more extensive damage in the surrounding area of the missile’s path due to temporary cavitation.

      When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma as a result of gunshot wounds, certain organs are more commonly injured. The small bowel is affected in approximately 50% of cases, followed by the colon in 40% of cases. The liver is injured in around 30% of cases, while abdominal vascular structures are affected in about 25% of cases.

      Please note that these statistics have been obtained from the most recent edition of the ATLS manual.

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  • Question 14 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
      Which of the following is NOT a beta-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.

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  • Question 15 - You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought into the emergency room by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the child may have signs of airway obstruction.
      Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burned patients is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

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  • Question 16 - A 35 year old is brought to the emergency room after a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old is brought to the emergency room after a car accident. He has a left sided mid-shaft femoral fracture and is experiencing abdominal pain. He appears restless. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 112/94 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 102 bpm
      Respiration rate: 21 rpm
      SpO2: 97% on room air
      Temperature: 36 ºC

      Which of the following additional parameters would be most helpful in monitoring this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine output

      Explanation:

      Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to circulatory insufficiency. It can be caused by fluid loss or redistribution, as well as impaired cardiac output. The main causes of shock include haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns, diuresis, sepsis, neurogenic shock, anaphylaxis, massive pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, and myocarditis.

      One common cause of shock is haemorrhage, which is frequently encountered in the emergency department. Haemorrhagic shock can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Type 1 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15% or less, with less than 750 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 1 shock may have normal blood pressure and heart rate, with a respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

      Type 2 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15 to 30%, with 750 to 1500 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 2 shock may have a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. Blood pressure is typically normal in type 2 shock.

      Type 3 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 30 to 40%, with 1.5 to 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 3 shock may have a pulse rate of 120 to 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 30 breaths per minute. Urine output is decreased to 5-15 mls per hour.

      Type 4 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of more than 40%, with more than 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 4 shock may have a pulse rate of more than 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 35 breaths per minute. They may also be drowsy, confused, and possibly experience loss of consciousness. Urine output may be minimal or absent.

      In summary, shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion. Haemorrhage is a common cause of shock, and it can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Prompt recognition and management of shock are crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while riding a bicycle and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her blood pressure is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also give her tranexamic acid.
      What is the appropriate initial dose of tranexamic acid to administer and over what duration of time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 g IV over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

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  • Question 18 - A 5-year-old child is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring. The child has been in a house fire and has sustained severe burns. The anesthesiologist examines the child's airway and is worried about the potential for airway blockage. Intubation is scheduled for the patient, and the necessary equipment is being prepared.
      As per the ATLS recommendations, what is the smallest internal diameter endotracheal tube that should be utilized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4.5 mm

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman that has been involved in a car accident is estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman that has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class II haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class II haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate of 110 bpm

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

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  • Question 20 - The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing...

    Incorrect

    • The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether to request a CT head scan for their patient. What clinical criteria would necessitate an immediate CT head scan in an elderly individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemotympanum

      Explanation:

      Patients with head injuries who show any signs of basal skull fracture, such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign, should undergo urgent CT imaging. Additionally, the following indications also warrant a CT scan: a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, greater than 1 episode of vomiting, or the patient being on anticoagulation. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation who should have a CT scan within 8 hours if they do not have any other signs. However, if patients on anticoagulation do have any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with burns on their hands....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with burns on their hands. After evaluation, it is determined that the patient has superficial partial thickness burns on the entire palmar surfaces of both hands. The burns do not extend beyond the wrist joint due to the patient wearing a thick jacket.

      To document the extent of the burns on a Lund and Browder chart, what percentage of the total body surface area is affected by this burn injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-3%

      Explanation:

      Based on the Lund and Browder chart, the total percentage of burns is calculated as 3 since it affects one side of both hands.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a bar. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the presence of free fluid in the chest cavity.

      Which of the following organs is most likely to be damaged in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Stab wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma due to stab wounds, the organs that are most commonly affected include the liver (40% of cases), small bowel (30% of cases), diaphragm (20% of cases), and colon (15% of cases). These statistics are derived from the latest edition of the ATLS manual.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been involved in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You evaluate his airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to perform intubation on the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial partial-thickness circumferential neck burns

      Explanation:

      Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.

      There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.

      In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.

      The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.

      Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.

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  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident. She is struggling to breathe, and you cannot hear any breath sounds on the right side. Her trachea is shifted to the left, and her neck veins are swollen. Based on your clinical assessment, you diagnose her with a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
      Where should you perform the needle thoracocentesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line

      Explanation:

      A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.

      The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to the right forearm. The patient explains that he was smoking a cigarette while driving back from work when the cigarette accidentally fell onto his arm, igniting his sleeve which might have been soaked in gasoline from work. You observe circumferential burns encompassing the entire right forearm. What would be your primary concern regarding potential complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome can occur when there are circumferential burns on the arms or legs. This typically happens with full thickness burns, where the burnt skin becomes stiff and compresses the compartment, making it difficult for blood to flow out. To treat this condition, escharotomy and possibly fasciotomy may be necessary.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old arrives at the emergency department after being involved in a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old arrives at the emergency department after being involved in a car accident. A FAST scan is conducted to assess for abdominal injuries caused by blunt trauma. Which of the following is NOT among the four standard views obtained during a FAST scan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Umbilical view

      Explanation:

      FAST scans consist of four standard views that are obtained to assess different areas of the body. These views include the right upper quadrant (RUQ), left upper quadrant (LUQ), pericardial sac, and the pelvis.

      In the RUQ view, the focus is on the right flank or peri-hepatic area, which includes Morison’s pouch and the right costophrenic pleural recess.

      The LUQ view examines the left flank or peri-splenic area, which includes the spleen-renal recess and the left costophrenic pleural space.

      The pericardial sac is also assessed to evaluate any abnormalities in this area.

      Lastly, the pelvis is examined in two planes to ensure a comprehensive evaluation.

      In addition to these four standard views, an anterior pleural view is often performed alongside the others. This view used to be part of the extended FAST (eFAST) scan but is now commonly included routinely.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her neck is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient. He is unable to pass an endotracheal tube, and he decides to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.

      Which of the following statements about needle cricothyroidotomy is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Evidence of local infection is a valid contraindication

      Explanation:

      A needle cricothyroidotomy is a procedure used in emergency situations to provide oxygenation when intubation and oxygenation are not possible. It is typically performed when a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated. There are certain conditions that make this procedure contraindicated, such as local infection, distorted anatomy, previous failed attempts, and swelling or mass lesions.

      To perform a needle cricothyroidotomy, the necessary equipment should be assembled and prepared. The patient should be positioned supine with their neck in a neutral position. The neck should be cleaned in a sterile manner using antiseptic swabs. If time allows, the area should be anesthetized locally. A 12 or 14 gauge over-the-needle catheter should be assembled to a 10 mL syringe.

      The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage, should be identified anteriorly. The trachea should be stabilized with the thumb and forefinger of one hand. Using the other hand, the skin should be punctured in the midline with the needle over the cricothyroid membrane. The needle should be directed at a 45° angle caudally while negative pressure is applied to the syringe. Needle aspiration should be maintained as the needle is inserted through the lower half of the cricothyroid membrane, with air aspiration indicating entry into the tracheal lumen.

      Once the needle is in place, the syringe and needle should be removed while the catheter is advanced to the hub. The oxygen catheter should be attached and the airway secured. It is important to be aware of possible complications, such as technique failure, cannula obstruction or dislodgement, injury to local structures, and surgical emphysema if high flow oxygen is administered through a malpositioned cannula.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The anesthesiologist has tried to intubate her but is unsuccessful and decides to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy.

      Which of the following statements about surgical cricothyroidotomy is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in the presence of a laryngeal fracture

      Explanation:

      A surgical cricothyroidotomy is a procedure performed in emergency situations to secure the airway by making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane. It is also known as an emergency surgical airway (ESA) and is typically done when intubation and oxygenation are not possible.

      There are certain conditions in which a surgical cricothyroidotomy should not be performed. These include patients who are under 12 years old, those with laryngeal fractures or pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, individuals with tracheal transection and retraction of the trachea into the mediastinum, and cases where the anatomical landmarks are obscured due to trauma.

      The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
      1. Gathering and preparing the necessary equipment.
      2. Positioning the patient on their back with the neck in a neutral position.
      3. Sterilizing the patient’s neck using antiseptic swabs.
      4. Administering local anesthesia, if time permits.
      5. Locating the cricothyroid membrane, which is situated between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage.
      6. Stabilizing the trachea with the left hand until it can be intubated.
      7. Making a transverse incision through the cricothyroid membrane.
      8. Inserting the scalpel handle into the incision and rotating it 90°. Alternatively, a haemostat can be used to open the airway.
      9. Placing a properly-sized, cuffed endotracheal tube (usually a size 5 or 6) into the incision, directing it into the trachea.
      10. Inflating the cuff and providing ventilation.
      11. Monitoring for chest rise and auscultating the chest to ensure adequate ventilation.
      12. Securing the airway to prevent displacement.

      Potential complications of a surgical cricothyroidotomy include aspiration of blood, creation of a false passage into the tissues, subglottic stenosis or edema, laryngeal stenosis, hemorrhage or hematoma formation, laceration of the esophagus or trachea, mediastinal emphysema, and vocal cord paralysis or hoarseness.

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  • Question 30 - A child presents with a thermal burn affecting her left hand that occurred...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a thermal burn affecting her left hand that occurred in the kitchen while baking. You evaluate the burn and observe that it is a deep partial-thickness burn.
      Which of the following statements about deep partial-thickness burns is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They do not blanch with pressure

      Explanation:

      Assessing the depth of a burn is crucial for determining the severity of the injury and planning appropriate wound care. Burns are typically classified as first-, second-, or third-degree, depending on how deeply they penetrate the skin’s surface.

      First-degree burns, also known as superficial burns, only affect the outer layer of skin called the epidermis. These burns are characterized by redness and pain, with dry skin and no blistering. An example of a first-degree burn is mild sunburn. They usually do not require intravenous fluid replacement and are not included in the assessment of the burn’s extent. Long-term tissue damage is rare with these burns.

      Second-degree burns, also called partial-thickness burns, involve both the epidermis and part of the dermis layer of skin. They can be further categorized as superficial partial-thickness or deep partial-thickness burns. Superficial partial-thickness burns are moist, hypersensitive, potentially blistered, uniformly pink, and blanch when touched. Deep partial-thickness burns are drier, less painful, potentially blistered, red or mottled in appearance, and do not blanch when touched.

      Third-degree burns, also known as full-thickness burns, destroy both the epidermis and dermis layers of skin and extend into the subcutaneous tissue. These burns may also damage underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears translucent or waxy white, or it can be charred. Once the epidermis is removed, the underlying dermis may initially appear red but does not blanch under pressure. This dermis is typically dry and does not produce any fluid. Since the nerve endings are destroyed, there is no sensation in the affected area.

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      • Trauma
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Trauma (3/3) 100%
Passmed