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  • Question 1 - You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently using Dianette (co-cyprindiol). During the discussion, you mention the higher risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) associated with Dianette compared to standard combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) that contain levonorgestrel. However, the patient is hesitant to switch as her acne has significantly improved since starting Dianette. Can you provide information on the exact increased risk of VTE in comparison to patients taking COCPs containing levonorgestrel?

      Your Answer: Around twice the risk

      Explanation:

      Dianette has a VTE risk that is approximately 1.5-2.0 times higher than that of typical COCPs.

      Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) – Updated Guidance

      Co-cyprindiol, also known as Dianette, is a medication licensed for the treatment of severe acne in women who are unresponsive to prolonged oral antibacterial therapy and moderately severe hirsutism. It is also an effective contraceptive, which has contributed to its popularity. However, some post-marketing studies have shown that some women were being prescribed additional hormonal contraception alongside co-cyprindiol, which is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      The duration of co-cyprindiol treatment is limited due to concerns about VTE. Interestingly, the increased risk of VTE associated with co-cyprindiol is similar to that of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) containing desogestrel, gestodene, or drospirenone, compared to COCPs containing levonorgestrel. The current evidence suggests that the VTE risk is about 1.5-2.0 times higher. Therefore, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of co-cyprindiol and other COCPs when prescribing them to women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Incorrect

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer: Asking the practice manager to carry out an informal survey amongst surgery attendees as to the impact of the change would be adequate

      Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize...

    Correct

    • A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize to elderly patient populations. This test can be said to have poor:

      External validity
      54%

      Predictive validity
      16%

      Construct validity
      9%

      Divergent validity
      14%

      Face validity
      8%

      Good external validity means that the results of a study generalize well to other populations, including the elderly.

      Your Answer: External validity

      Explanation:

      When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      75
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness and swollen ankles for the past 3 months. You plan to conduct a BNP test. What could cause a falsely low BNP result in this patient?

      Your Answer: Being on ramipril for his blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Serum levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) can be measured to assess the likelihood of heart failure in patients. NT-proBNP is the inactive prohormone of BNP and is released from the left ventricle in response to ventricular strain. It acts to increase renal excretion of water and sodium, and relax vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation.

      BNP measurements are recommended for patients with suspected heart failure who have not had a previous myocardial infarction. Elevated BNP levels (>400) indicate a poor prognosis and require an urgent referral for echocardiography and specialist assessment. However, normal BNP levels do not confirm the absence of heart failure, as levels may be elevated due to other conditions such as left ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension, or renal impairment.

      NICE guidelines suggest that BNP measurements are not necessary for patients with suspected heart failure who have had a previous myocardial infarction, as urgent referral and assessment are required regardless of BNP levels. BNP levels may also be affected by medications such as ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, as well as obesity.

      Overall, BNP measurements can be a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure, but should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings and patient history.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes,...

    Correct

    • You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes, osteoarthritis, and hypertension. She experienced pain while bearing weight after twisting her leg while getting out of a car. The pain has reduced with simple analgesia. She also mentions a lump under her knee. During the examination, you notice a non-tender 4 cm lump just below the popliteal fossa that becomes tense when the leg is extended. The patient has full power throughout. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Baker's cyst

      Explanation:

      The usual individual with a Baker’s cyst is someone who has arthritis or gout and has experienced a minor knee injury. When the knee is extended, Foucher’s sign indicates an increase in tension in the Baker’s cyst. It is important to consider the possibility of a DVT, which can imitate a Baker’s cyst. Furthermore, a DVT may coexist with a Baker’s cyst, and an ultrasound should be performed with a low threshold.

      Knee Problems in Older Adults

      As people age, they become more susceptible to knee problems. Osteoarthritis of the knee is a common condition in older adults, especially those who are overweight. It is characterized by severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling.

      Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may occur due to twisting of the knee, often accompanied by a popping noise and rapid onset of knee effusion. A positive draw test is used to diagnose this condition. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as hitting the knee on the dashboard during a car accident.

      Collateral ligament injuries are characterized by tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and are often accompanied by locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help older adults seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old male patient complains of constant sneezing, nasal congestion, and a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient complains of constant sneezing, nasal congestion, and a persistent runny nose. What is not considered a part of the treatment plan for allergic rhinitis?

      Your Answer: Oral corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Oral decongestants

      Explanation:

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She...

    Correct

    • You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She reports partial relief with paracetamol and ibuprofen but inquires about preventive measures. What is the best course of action to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: Refer for acupuncture

      Explanation:

      Tension-type headache is a type of primary headache that is characterized by a sensation of pressure or a tight band around the head. Unlike migraine, tension-type headache is typically bilateral and of lower intensity. It is not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting, or physical activity. Stress may be a contributing factor, and it can coexist with migraine. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as occurring on 15 or more days per month.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidelines for managing tension-type headache. For acute treatment, aspirin, paracetamol, or an NSAID are recommended as first-line options. For prophylaxis, NICE suggests up to 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks. Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the UK for prophylaxis, but the 2012 NICE guidelines do not support this approach. The guidelines state that there is not enough evidence to recommend pharmacological prophylactic treatment for tension-type headache, and that pure tension-type headache requiring prophylaxis is rare. Assessment may uncover coexisting migraine symptomatology with a possible diagnosis of chronic migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history of right temporal headache, jaw claudication, fever and reduced appetite. She stated that her vision had not worsened.
      Upon examination, there was tenderness on palpation of the right scalp at the temporal region and the right temporal artery was palpable and hard. The patient's visual acuity was 6/6 on both eyes according to the Snellen chart.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Start the patient on oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis: Urgent Management Required

      This patient’s history strongly suggests giant cell temporal arteritis (GCA), a medical emergency that requires urgent management. While ophthalmologists may be involved in the management of GCA, their involvement is only necessary if the condition is affecting the patient’s vision. In this scenario, the patient’s vision is not affected.

      The recommended course of action is to start the patient on 40-60mg of prednisolone per day (for patients without visual symptoms) and refer them urgently to a physician, typically a Rheumatologist. It is important to note that national guidance should be followed, rather than local variations, when assessing patients in an exam setting. Shared care is recommended, and patients may require treatment for several years.

      In addition to steroids, aspirin and PPIs are recommended. However, long-term treatment with oral steroids can increase the risk of osteoporosis, which should be assessed. For more information on national guidance and associated information, CKS provides a comprehensive summary of GCA management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him with major depressive illness, you decide to treat him with an SSRI. Two weeks later, he returns to your office feeling a bit shaky and complaining of excessive sweating, but overall he seems upbeat. He talks quickly and with great optimism, and you wonder if a mild sedative might help. However, he is resistant to any further intervention and continues to share his ambitious aspirations, which you find somewhat unrealistic.

      What steps would you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Refer to psychiatrist

      Correct Answer: Review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment for Bipolar Illness

      When a patient shows symptoms of mania, it can change their diagnosis from unipolar to bipolar illness. In this case, the patient’s hostility and grandiose delusions confirm the change in diagnosis. It is important to refer the patient immediately for specialist help to ensure proper treatment.

      Additionally, the patient is experiencing side effects from their selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), including shakiness and excessive sweating. While these side effects can be troublesome, they can be managed with short term benzodiazepines. It is crucial to address both the bipolar illness and the side effects of medication to provide the best possible care for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She is currently using condoms and doesn't believe she is at risk of pregnancy. She smokes 4 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 22 kg/m², and a blood pressure of 120/65 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, heart disease, strokes, or migraines. Sophie has a regular 30-day menstrual cycle and is on day 3 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe Yasmin. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today and there is no need for extra protection

      Correct Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Extra precautions should be taken during the first 7 days of starting the combined oral contraceptive pill as it doesn’t provide immediate protection when initiated on day 6 of the menstrual cycle. Women over the age of 35 who smoke should not use this form of contraception.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond...

    Correct

    • A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond to immunosuppression and chemotherapy.
      What is the most likely long-term risk factor after splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Infections

      Explanation:

      The Risks and Benefits of Splenectomy

      Splenectomy, or the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it is not without risks. One of the most significant risks is overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. Patients who have had a splenectomy are at a lifetime risk of 5% for OPSI, with the most common causative organism being the pneumococcus. Therefore, it is crucial for these patients to receive vaccinations and prophylactic antibiotics.

      While splenectomy is not typically performed for cancer or liver fibrosis, it may be beneficial for certain haematological disorders such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis. In rare cases, splenectomy may also be indicated for patients with Hodgkin’s disease who are refractory to medical therapy.

      Overall, the decision to undergo splenectomy should be carefully considered, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. Close monitoring and appropriate preventative measures should be taken to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation of the chest, crackles can be heard in the right lower zone. He is on atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of cardiovascular events. He is allergic to penicillin; therefore, a course of clarithromycin is prescribed for his chest infection.
      What is the most important information that needs to be provided?

      Your Answer: Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Managing Atorvastatin and Clarithromycin Interaction

      Explanation: When a patient is allergic to penicillin and requires treatment for a chest infection, clarithromycin may be prescribed. However, it is important to note that clarithromycin is a potent inhibitor of liver isoenzyme cytochrome P450 CYP3A4, which can affect the metabolism of drugs like atorvastatin. Here are some guidelines to manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin:

      1. Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin to avoid potential toxic effects like rhabdomyolysis.
      2. Simple linctus may help with cough, but stopping atorvastatin is the priority.
      3. Continuing to take 20 mg atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin increases the risk of myopathy.
      4. Report any muscle pain as it may be a sign of myopathy.
      5. If concurrent use of atorvastatin and clarithromycin is necessary, prescribe the lowest dose of atorvastatin and monitor for symptoms of myopathy.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin and ensure the safety of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient...

    Correct

    • You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.

      The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker

      Explanation:

      What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?

      In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.

      Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.

      As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - This 65-year-old individual with diabetes is experiencing a decline in their ability to...

    Incorrect

    • This 65-year-old individual with diabetes is experiencing a decline in their ability to read newsprint. The lens clouding is making it difficult to visualize the retina on fundoscopy.
      What is the probable reason for this person's vision impairment?

      Your Answer: Cataract

      Correct Answer: Rubeosis iridis

      Explanation:

      Premature Cataracts and Diabetic Retinopathy

      Cataracts can develop prematurely due to various factors such as diabetes, steroid therapy, Cushing’s syndrome, and trauma. When this happens, it is important to treat the cataract to assess the back of the eye for any signs of diabetic retinopathy. Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision loss. By treating the cataract, doctors can examine the retina and determine if any further treatment is necessary to prevent or manage diabetic retinopathy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other risk factors for premature cataracts to have regular eye exams to detect and address any potential issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:

      Temperature 38.5 degrees
      Heart rate 160 bpm
      Respiratory rate 40 / min
      Oxygen saturation 95%

      The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.

      According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?

      Your Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm

      Explanation:

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
      The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
      Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy

      Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 81-year-old man presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye....

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye. On further questioning, he complains of a left-sided headache over the past few weeks, associated with tenderness of his head when he brushes his hair. On examination, his vision is reduced to counting fingers in the left eye. A left relative afferent pupillary defect is present. Fundoscopy reveals a pale, swollen left optic disc with some adjacent flame-shaped haemorrhages. The right eye is entirely normal. An urgent erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated at 92 mm/h.
      What is the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Administration of high-dose systemic corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Giant-Cell Arteritis

      Giant-cell arteritis is a serious condition that can lead to sudden, painless loss of vision. It should be suspected in patients over 50 years old who present with symptoms such as headache, scalp tenderness, and an elevated ESR. Other symptoms may include jaw claudication, joint pain, myalgia, anorexia, weight loss, and fever. If giant-cell arteritis is suspected, high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be started immediately to prevent bilateral vision loss, which can occur within 1-2 weeks. A temporal artery biopsy may also be considered to confirm the diagnosis, although it may remain positive for several weeks after starting treatment.

      The initial dose of corticosteroids is typically 60 mg daily for patients with visual symptoms and 40-60 mg daily for others. Aspirin and a proton pump inhibitor should also be started at the same time. Automated visual field assessment may be part of an ophthalmological assessment, but it is not a reliable diagnostic tool. A CT scan of the brain and orbits may be useful in ruling out other causes of vision loss, such as compressive optic nerve tumors.

      After treatment is initiated, an urgent specialist review is recommended, although some patients may be managed solely in primary care. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing permanent vision loss in patients with giant-cell arteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:

      TSH <0.05 mU/l
      Free T4 25 pmol/l

      What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.

      To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently...

    Incorrect

    • You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently discharged from a psychiatry ward after a suicide attempt. He was switched from sertraline to venlafaxine. His husband says his mood is okay but over the last 2 weeks, he became erratic and was not sleeping. He spoke fast about a 'handsome inheritance' he got but was gambling away their savings saying he was going to save the world. When confronted he became angry and accused him of trying to 'steal his energy'. You suspect he's developed mania and refer him to the crisis psychiatry team.

      What do you anticipate will be the subsequent step in management?

      Your Answer: Cross-taper the patient back to sertraline

      Correct Answer: Stop venlafaxine and start risperidone

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient who develops mania while taking an antidepressant is to stop the antidepressant and start antipsychotic therapy. In this case, the patient should stop taking venlafaxine and start taking risperidone. Antidepressants can trigger mania or hypomania as a side effect, particularly with SSRIs and TCAs, and venlafaxine has a particularly high risk. NICE guidance recommends stopping the antidepressant and offering an antipsychotic regardless of whether the antidepressant is stopped. The choice of antipsychotic should be one of haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone. Cross-tapering the patient back to sertraline is not recommended, nor is cross-tapering to mirtazapine and adding sodium valproate modified-release. Prescribing a two-week course of oral clonazepam is also not recommended. Starting lithium is effective in manic and depressive relapse prevention in bipolar disorder, but it is not recommended as first-line for the management of acute mania in patients who are not already on antipsychotics.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: No action needed but omit pill break at end of pack

      Correct Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of using combined hormonal contraceptives and wishes to continue with this method. She is currently 14 days postpartum.
      What would be a contraindication to prescribing a combined hormonal contraceptive at this time?

      Your Answer: She suffered with pre-eclampsia in the antenatal period

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Postpartum Women

      Postnatally, it is important for women to undergo a risk assessment for venous thromboembolism before considering their contraceptive options. Women with risk factors for venous thromboembolism within 6 weeks of childbirth, such as immobility, postpartum haemorrhage, and pre-eclampsia, should not use combined hormonal contraception. This applies to women who are breastfeeding and not breastfeeding, as the risk of venous thromboembolism is the same for both groups. However, the risk reduces quickly over the first three weeks postpartum, and the UKMEC advises that women who breastfeed should wait until six weeks postpartum before using combined hormonal contraception. Studies have shown that early initiation of combined hormonal contraception may have inconsistent effects on breastfeeding performance and conflicting data on infant outcomes, but overall, there is no negative impact on infant outcomes when initiated from six weeks postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      75
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 10 days. He had recently returned from a two-month trip to northern India. On examination, he has no fever and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is suggested by the prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea and the incubation period.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and nausea. She has been experiencing these attacks several times a month for the past half-year. The patient has no comorbidities, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an oral triptan and propranolol prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of migraine, this patient should be prescribed an oral triptan along with either an NSAID or paracetamol for acute attacks. Additionally, prophylaxis should be considered as the patient experiences two or more attacks per month. Propranolol would be the most appropriate prophylaxis for this patient, as she is of childbearing age and topiramate may not be suitable. Pizotifen is no longer recommended for migraine prophylaxis due to its common side effects, while verapamil is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks gestation and started on insulin therapy. She has not experienced any hypoglycaemic episodes since starting treatment. As her delivery is expected at around 40 weeks, she has been advised to consult her GP regarding driving. Currently, she holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given to the patient regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Can continue driving as normal with no stipulations

      Correct Answer: Doesn't need to inform the DVLA. However, should check blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey

      Explanation:

      Patients on insulin are not always required to inform the DVLA, except for those on temporary treatment for less than three months or those with gestational diabetes who are taking insulin for less than three months after delivery. If a patient falls under these exceptions, they can continue driving but must follow the guidelines for insulin-taking patients, which include checking their blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey. It is incorrect to assume that a patient can continue driving as normal without any stipulations, even if they do not need to inform the DVLA.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      95.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man comes to see you having been diagnosed with cataract by...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to see you having been diagnosed with cataract by a local optician.
      Which of the following statements about cataracts is correct?

      Your Answer: They may cause similar symptoms to macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Myths and Facts About Cataracts

      Cataracts are a common eye condition that can cause vision loss and other symptoms. However, there are many myths and misconceptions about cataracts that can lead to confusion and misinformation. Here are some common myths and the facts that debunk them:

      Myth: Cataracts only cause painless loss of vision similar to macular degeneration.
      Fact: While painless loss of vision is a symptom of cataracts, they can also cause defects in the red reflex and monocular diplopia.

      Myth: Cataracts only affect elderly people.
      Fact: While age is a common factor in cataract development, other factors such as malnutrition, illness, and excess UV exposure can also contribute. Children can also develop cataracts.

      Myth: Cataracts in the elderly are unaffected by other disease processes.
      Fact: Cataracts can develop after eye surgery, in people with diabetes or other health problems, and can be linked to steroid use and smoking.

      Myth: Recurrence of symptoms after cataract surgery is unusual.
      Fact: Posterior capsule opacification can occur in up to 40% of cases, but can be treated with laser capsulotomy.

      By understanding the facts about cataracts, individuals can better manage their eye health and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following medications should be prescribed using the brand name...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following medications should be prescribed using the brand name instead of the generic name?

      Your Answer: Cabergoline

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals

      Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.

      However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      18.8
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  • Question 29 - A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching....

    Correct

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge from her vagina. Upon examination, clue cells are found in a swab.

      Medical history:
      Endometriosis

      Current medications:
      Yasmin
      Loratadine 10 mg once daily

      Allergies:
      Penicillin
      Clindamycin

      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Topical clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Patients with bacterial vaginosis who have a history of clue cells can be treated with topical clindamycin as an alternative to metronidazole, according to the BNF. This is particularly useful for patients who are allergic to metronidazole.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      11.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology And Breast (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/3) 33%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (3/4) 75%
Mental Health (1/3) 33%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/5) 40%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed