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  • Question 1 - Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal phase?

      Your Answer: Congenital heart disease

      Correct Answer: Physiological jaundice

      Explanation:

      Feeding Difficulty and Physiological Jaundice

      Feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, but it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Physiological jaundice is a benign condition that is short-lived and does not generally cause any symptoms. This means that it is not related to feeding difficulties that infants may experience.

      It is important for parents to be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty in their infants, such as difficulty latching, poor weight gain, and excessive crying during feeding. These symptoms may indicate an underlying medical condition that requires prompt attention. On the other hand, physiological jaundice is a normal occurrence in many newborns and typically resolves on its own without any treatment.

      In summary, while feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Parents should be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty and seek medical attention if necessary, but they can rest assured that physiological jaundice is a benign condition that does not generally cause any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man presents with fatigue. His complete blood count and iron studies...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with fatigue. His complete blood count and iron studies are provided below.

      Hemoglobin: 95g/L (normal range: 135-180g/L)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume: 58fL (normal range: 78-100fL)
      Platelets: 210* 109/L (normal range: 150-400* 109/L)
      White Blood Cells: 7* 109/L (normal range: 4-11* 109/L)
      Ferritin: 14 ug/L (normal range: 41-400 ug/L)
      Total Iron Binding Capacity: 80 micromoles/L (normal range: 45-66 micromoles/L)

      What is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Faecal occult blood

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      The complete blood count results indicate that the patient has microcytic anemia, which is caused by iron deficiency according to the iron studies. In men over 60 years old, iron deficiency anemia is often linked to colorectal cancer, so urgent referral to colorectal services is necessary for suspected cancer cases. A colonoscopy and OGD are likely to be performed. CEA is a tumor marker for colon cancer, but it is not used for diagnosis due to its poor specificity. B12 and folate deficiency would result in an increased MCV, so they are not the cause of this patient’s anemia. If bone marrow failure were suspected, a bone marrow biopsy might be performed, but the patient’s platelets and white cell count would be reduced in such cases.

      Understanding Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of mortality rates. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%. Understanding the location of the cancer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. With early detection and proper medical care, the prognosis for colorectal cancer can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of dyspareunia and intermenstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of dyspareunia and intermenstrual bleeding. She is not on any hormonal contraceptives. Following the exclusion of sexually transmitted infections and fibroids, she is referred for colposcopy. The diagnosis is a grade 1A squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. The patient is married and desires to have children in the future. What is the best treatment option for her cancer?

      Your Answer: Laser ablation

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If a woman with stage IA cervical cancer desires to preserve her fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins may be considered as an option. However, for women who do not wish to have children, a hysterectomy with lymph node clearance is recommended. Cisplatin chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not appropriate for this stage of cervical cancer, while laser ablation is only used for cervical intraepithelial dysplasias. Radical trachelectomy is not recommended as it may negatively impact fertility.

      Management of Cervical Cancer Based on FIGO Staging

      Cervical cancer management is determined by the FIGO staging and the patient’s desire to maintain fertility. The FIGO staging system categorizes cervical cancer into four stages based on the extent of the tumor’s spread. Stage IA and IB tumors are confined to the cervix, with IA tumors only visible under a microscope and less than 7 mm wide. Stage II tumors have spread beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall, while stage III tumors have spread to the pelvic wall. Stage IV tumors have spread beyond the pelvis or involve the bladder or rectum.

      The management of stage IA tumors involves a hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance. For patients who want to maintain fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins can be performed, but close follow-up is necessary. Stage IB tumors are managed with radiotherapy and concurrent chemotherapy for B1 tumors and radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection for B2 tumors.

      Stage II and III tumors are managed with radiation and concurrent chemotherapy, with consideration for nephrostomy if hydronephrosis is present. Stage IV tumors are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy, with palliative chemotherapy being the best option for stage IVB. Recurrent disease is managed with either surgical treatment followed by chemoradiation or radiotherapy followed by surgical therapy.

      The prognosis of cervical cancer depends on the FIGO staging, with higher survival rates for earlier stages. Complications of treatments include standard surgical risks, increased risk of preterm birth with cone biopsies and radical trachelectomy, and ureteral fistula with radical hysterectomy. Complications of radiotherapy include short-term symptoms such as diarrhea and vaginal bleeding and long-term effects such as ovarian failure and fibrosis of various organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
      In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?

      Your Answer: A ventilator-supported patient

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis

      Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.

      One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.

      Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.

      Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer: Grade 4

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - As the obstetrics FY2 doctor, you are reviewing the labour ward patient list....

    Incorrect

    • As the obstetrics FY2 doctor, you are reviewing the labour ward patient list. What discovery in one of the patients, who is slightly older, would prompt you to initiate continuous CTG monitoring during labour?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer: New onset vaginal bleed while in labour

      Explanation:

      Continuous CTG monitoring is recommended during labour if any of the following conditions are present or develop: suspected chorioamnionitis or sepsis, a temperature of 38°C or higher, severe hypertension with a reading of 160/110 mmHg or above, use of oxytocin, or significant meconium. In addition, the 2014 update to the guidelines added fresh vaginal bleeding as a new point of concern, as it may indicate placental rupture or placenta previa, both of which require monitoring of the baby.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a swollen left eye. She...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a swollen left eye. She noticed it while playing outside in the park. Her mother is concerned because she is having difficulty reading her books. The girl has no medical history, and this has never happened before.

      During the examination, the left eyelid is warm and red, and the eye seems to be bulging. The girl's eye movements are limited in all directions. The right eye appears normal. Her heart rate is 120 beats/minute, and her temperature is 37.9ºC.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis based on the presence of reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain with eye movements. This classic presentation is accompanied by fever and tachycardia, indicating an infection. While preseptal cellulitis can also cause a swollen eye, it does not result in the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Other conditions, such as minimal change disease, mastoiditis, and bilateral periorbital edema, may cause swelling and fever, but they do not typically result in unilateral swelling with restricted eye movements and raised temperature.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are conducting a medication review for a 67-year-old man who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a medication review for a 67-year-old man who has a medical history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 3 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
      - Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 5mg once daily
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Diclofenac 50 mg as needed
      - Sertraline 50 mg once daily
      - Lansoprazole 15 mg once daily

      What modification would be most appropriate for his medication regimen?

      Your Answer: Reduce the dose of simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID

      Explanation:

      The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.

      MHRA Guidance on Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Safety

      The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), after a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, it is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.

      The MHRA’s updated guidance on diclofenac and cardiovascular safety highlights the increased risk of cardiovascular events associated with this NSAID compared to other NSAIDs. Patients with certain conditions are advised to avoid diclofenac and switch to other NSAIDs. This guidance is important for healthcare professionals to consider when prescribing NSAIDs to patients with cardiovascular risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders

      Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.

      One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.

      Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.

      In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old primigravida woman is rushed for an emergency caesarean section due to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida woman is rushed for an emergency caesarean section due to fetal distress and hypoxia detected on cardiotocography. She is currently at 31 weeks gestation.
      After delivery, the baby is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) and given oxygen to aid breathing difficulties.
      Several weeks later, during an ophthalmological examination, the baby is found to have bilateral absent red reflex and retinal neovascularisation.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy of prematurity

      Explanation:

      Risks Associated with Prematurity

      Prematurity is a condition that poses several risks to the health of newborns. The risk of mortality increases with decreasing gestational age. Premature babies are at risk of developing respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular haemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis, chronic lung disease, hypothermia, feeding problems, infection, jaundice, and retinopathy of prematurity. Retinopathy of prematurity is a significant cause of visual impairment in babies born before 32 weeks of gestation. The cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed that over oxygenation during ventilation can lead to the proliferation of retinal blood vessels, resulting in neovascularization. Screening for retinopathy of prematurity is done in at-risk groups. Premature babies are also at risk of hearing problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK?

      Your Answer: 80–84 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for Women in the UK

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a woman in the UK was only 59 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, women in the UK can now expect to live an average of 82.5 years. This remarkable increase in life expectancy is a testament to the progress made in healthcare and social welfare in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral aspect of her midfoot after slipping off a kerb while walking. She is having difficulty walking and a radiograph reveals a fracture of the 5th metatarsal. What is the most probable mechanism of action that caused this fracture?

      Your Answer: Eversion of the foot and ankle

      Correct Answer: Inversion of the foot and ankle

      Explanation:

      Fractures of the 5th metatarsal are commonly caused by the foot and ankle being forcefully inverted. These types of fractures are often seen in athletes, including dancers, football players, and rugby players, but can also occur from minor incidents such as stepping off a curb. Avulsion fractures are a specific type of 5th metatarsal fracture that result from the peroneus brevis muscle pulling on the proximal part of the bone during foot inversion. It is important to note that 5th metatarsal fractures are not associated with any other movements of the ankle or hip.

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      58.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results of her smear test show that she is positive for hrHPV (high-risk human papillomavirus), but her cytology is normal. She is advised to come back for another smear test in a year's time. When she returns, her results show that she is still positive for hrHPV, but her cytology is normal. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat smear again in 6 months

      Correct Answer: Repeat smear again in 12 months

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines for cervical cancer screening recommend using hrHPV as the first screening test. If the result is negative, the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the result is positive, the sample is examined for cytology. If the cytology is normal, the patient is asked to return for screening in 12 months instead of the usual 3 years. If the hrHPV result is negative at the 12-month follow-up, the patient can return to routine recall. But if the result is positive again, as in this scenario, and the cytology is normal, the patient should attend another screening in 12 months. If the cytology is abnormal at any point, the patient should be referred for colposcopy. If the patient attends a third screening in another 12 months and the hrHPV result is still positive, she should be referred for colposcopy regardless of the cytology result.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea and pyrexia. He has a history of alcohol abuse and emits a strong smell of alcohol. While in the department, he begins to cough up currant jelly sputum. He is admitted and given the appropriate antibiotics. The sputum is cultured and the causative agent is identified. What other condition is associated with this organism?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Correct Answer: Pleural empyema

      Explanation:

      Empyema formation can be caused by Klebsiella.

      Alcoholics are often affected by Klebsiella infections, which have unique characteristics such as sputum resembling currant jelly. They are also linked to various other conditions, including ascending cholangitis. Patients may develop empyema after pneumonia, which is a collection of pus in an existing cavity, such as the pleural space, and should not be confused with an abscess, which is a collection of pus in a newly formed cavity.

      Tuberculosis is associated with Addison’s disease, while parvovirus B19 infection is linked to aplastic anemia in individuals with sickle cell anemia. Although erythema multiforme can have multiple causes, it is not caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. The most common cause of this condition is Mycoplasma pneumonia.

      Klebsiella Pneumoniae: A Gram-Negative Rod Causing Infections in Humans

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of Gram-negative rod that is typically found in the gut flora of humans. Although it is a normal part of the body’s microbiome, it can also cause a variety of infections in humans, including pneumonia and urinary tract infections. This bacterium is more commonly found in individuals who have diabetes or who consume alcohol regularly. In some cases, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can occur following aspiration.

      One of the distinctive features of Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is the presence of red-currant jelly sputum. This type of sputum is often seen in patients with pneumonia caused by this bacterium. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections tend to affect the upper lobes of the lungs.

      Unfortunately, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can be quite serious and even life-threatening. They commonly lead to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, and the mortality rate for these infections is between 30-50%. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections, particularly in patients who are at higher risk due to underlying health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, gout and hypercholesterolemia experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, gout and hypercholesterolemia experiences an abrupt onset of diarrhea. Which medication is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Colchicine is known to induce diarrhoea as a side effect.

      One of the common side effects of colchicine, a medication utilized for treating acute gout attacks, is diarrhoea. Due to this, some physicians opt for naproxen or prednisolone instead of prescribing colchicine. The remaining drugs on the list are not typically associated with diarrhoea.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she has cool and dry hands, bradycardia and slow-relaxing reflexes. When asked about medication, she reports taking a tablet for her mental health disorder for a prolonged period. Which medication is most likely responsible for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium and Hypothyroidism

      Lithium is a commonly used medication for bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and can easily cause toxicity. One of the long-term side effects of lithium is hypothyroidism, which can present with symptoms such as cool hands, bradycardia, and slow reflexes. Treatment for hypothyroidism caused by lithium typically involves thyroxine. Other psychiatric medications, such as olanzapine, amitriptyline, clonazepam, and clozapine, are less likely to cause hypothyroidism and would not present with the same clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has noticed hair loss, a rash on her face, and mouth ulcers. Additionally, she has been experiencing joint pain and has been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen to manage it. This is her second visit to the clinic, and the registrar has already sent off some immunology tests. The results show a positive dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects young women. It is caused by the deposition of immune complexes and can have a wide range of clinical effects, including a butterfly-shaped rash on the cheeks and nose, joint pain, and involvement of multiple organ systems such as the kidneys, lungs, and heart. SLE is associated with the presence of ANA and dsDNA antibodies, as well as low levels of C3 and C4 in the blood.

      Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a syndrome that shares features with several other rheumatological conditions, including SLE, scleroderma, myositis, and rheumatoid arthritis. Common symptoms include fatigue, joint pain, pulmonary involvement, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. MCTD is strongly associated with anti-RNP antibodies.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that typically affects middle-aged women and causes symmetrical joint pain and stiffness, particularly in the hands and feet. If left untreated, it can lead to deformities that affect function. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with the presence of autoantibodies such as rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP.

      Polymyositis is an autoimmune myositis that causes weakness and loss of muscle mass, particularly in the proximal muscles. Other symptoms may include malaise and difficulty swallowing. Polymyositis is associated with anti-Jo1 autoantibodies.

      Systemic sclerosis, also known as diffuse scleroderma, is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects women aged 30-50. It causes collagen accumulation, leading to thickening of the skin and vasculitis affecting small arteries. Systemic sclerosis can affect multiple organ systems, including the skin, lungs, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. It is associated with anti-Scl70 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP and experiences a convulsive episode involving her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP and experiences a convulsive episode involving her entire body while in the waiting room. She is unable to speak during the episode but can make eye contact when her name is called. Following the episode, she quickly returns to her normal state and can recall everything that occurred. Her medical history includes alcohol overuse and post-traumatic stress disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic non-epileptic seizure

      Explanation:

      Widespread convulsions without loss of consciousness may indicate a psychogenic non-epileptic seizure (pseudoseizure), especially in a patient with psychiatric comorbidities. A focal aware seizure would not involve whole-body convulsions, while an alcohol withdrawal seizure would involve loss of consciousness. A panic attack may involve involuntary movement, but widespread convulsions would be unusual.

      Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures

      Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.

      Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.

      Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.

      It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the delivery suite...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the delivery suite with complaints of feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, a 32 week size foetus is noted. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/100 mmHg and 2+ protein is detected in her urine. While being examined, she experiences a seizure, leading you to suspect eclampsia. What is the first medication that should be administered?

      Your Answer: Midazolam

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The primary concern in eclampsia is to manage seizures, which can be prevented and treated with magnesium sulphate as the first-line treatment. If magnesium sulphate is not available or ineffective, benzodiazepines like midazolam can be considered. Additionally, due to high blood pressure, antihypertensive drugs like Labetalol, Hydralazine, and Nifedipine are administered during pregnancy as they are effective and have low teratogenicity. Starting low dose aspirin before 16 weeks of gestation has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a 7-month history of lighter periods that have become more irregular. The GP diagnoses her as perimenopausal and prescribes Elleste duet tablets (estradiol + norethisterone) as sequential combined HRT since she has not had a total abdominal hysterectomy. The GP discusses the potential risks with the patient. What is the most crucial risk to mention regarding the norethisterone component?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer is increased when progesterone is added to HRT. However, it is important to note that the risk is minimal and patients should be informed of this. According to the Women Health Institute, if 1000 women on HRT for 5 years were compared to 1000 women not on HRT for 5 years, there would only be 4 more cases of breast cancer. Women who start HRT under the age of 60 are not at an increased risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Norethisterone, a progesterone, reduces the risk of endometrial carcinoma, so women with a uterus are always started on combined HRT. Women without a uterus are started on unopposed oestrogen. While HRT may increase the risk of headaches, this is less important to mention compared to the risk of breast cancer.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.7
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman, a smoker, was referred to the Antenatal Unit with a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, a smoker, was referred to the Antenatal Unit with a small amount of dark brown vaginal bleeding at 39+2 weeks’ gestation. On admission, a speculum examination showed some old blood in the vagina, but no evidence of active bleeding. The cervix was long, and the os closed. Patient observations were stable, and an ultrasound scan was unremarkable. Two hours later, the emergency alarm is heard. The patient is in distress with extreme abdominal pain and fresh vaginal bleeding. The CTG records a prolonged deceleration of four minutes.
      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Emergency Caesarean Section for Placental Abruption: Management and Considerations

      Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In cases where the abruption is severe and associated with fetal distress, an emergency Caesarean section is often the only option for immediate delivery of the fetus and management of the abruption.

      In this scenario, the patient presents with placental abruption and has suddenly deteriorated with severe pain and fresh red bleeding, indicating a further significant abruption of the placenta associated with bleeding. This has caused an abrupt cessation or disruption in the blood flow to the fetus, leading to a prolonged deceleration. A prolonged deceleration of > 3 minutes or acute bradycardia are indications for immediate delivery of the baby.

      As the scenario does not tell us whether the patient is in labor and fully dilated, an instrumental delivery cannot be performed. Additionally, there is no time to assess bleeding by vaginal delivery; the patient should be immediately transferred to theatre where an examination can be performed before proceeding with a Caesarean section.

      Before going to theatre for an emergency Caesarean section, it is necessary to offer appropriate resuscitation to the mother. Intravenous fluids, a full blood count, oxygen as required, and crossmatch of two units of blood to be used if required is necessary. Intravenous fluid resuscitation can also take place in theatre, managed accordingly by the anaesthetist.

      In conclusion, an emergency Caesarean section is the preferred option for immediate delivery of the fetus and management of the abruption in cases of severe placental abruption associated with fetal distress. Prompt management and appropriate resuscitation are crucial to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in...

    Correct

    • You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
      How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.

      Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The placebo group experienced 150 myocardial infarctions (MIs), while the group treated with the new statin had 100 infarctions. What is the yearly percentage of MIs in the diabetic population who received the placebo?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Incidence of Myocardial Infarction in Diabetic Patients

      This study found that out of 1000 diabetic patients treated with a placebo over a five-year period, there were 150 cases of myocardial infarction (MI). This means that the rate of infarction in this group was 15%, which translates to an annual MI rate of 3%. These findings provide important information for healthcare professionals treating diabetic patients, as they highlight the increased risk of MI in this population. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this risk and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage cardiovascular complications in diabetic patients. This study emphasizes the need for continued research and development of effective prevention and treatment strategies for diabetic patients at risk for MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Emma is a 26-year-old patient who has been experiencing back pain for the...

    Incorrect

    • Emma is a 26-year-old patient who has been experiencing back pain for the past year. She describes the pain as a dull ache that is mostly located in her lower back and sometimes wakes her up in the early hours of the morning. Emma notes that she generally feels better when she is active throughout the day and is often worse when resting.

      What investigation would be most helpful in confirming Emma's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)

      Correct Answer: Pelvic X-ray

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that a negative HLA-B27 result should not be used to completely rule out a diagnosis of spondyloarthritis, as there are still cases of ankylosing spondylitis that do not show this genetic marker.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - To what does the term axon varicosity refer? ...

    Correct

    • To what does the term axon varicosity refer?

      Your Answer: A series of swellings along the length of an axon from which certain types of neurones can release neurotransmitters

      Explanation:

      Axon Varicosities: Small Swellings Along the Length of an Axon

      Axon varicosity refers to a series of small swellings found along the length of an axon. These structures are commonly found in neurones of the autonomic nervous system and are responsible for releasing neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neurone directly onto the effector organs, such as smooth muscle. Axon varicosities are important because they allow for efficient and rapid communication between neurones and their target organs. By releasing neurotransmitters directly onto the effector organs, axon varicosities can quickly and effectively modulate the activity of these organs. Overall, axon varicosities play an important role in the functioning of the autonomic nervous system and are a key component of the neural communication system in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She...

    Incorrect

    • Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?

      Your Answer: Cholestasis

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus

      Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.

      Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.1
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  • Question 29 - A 36-year-old man is one day postoperative, following an inguinal hernia repair. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is one day postoperative, following an inguinal hernia repair. He has become extremely nauseated and is vomiting. He is complaining of general malaise and lethargy. His past medical history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus; you perform a capillary blood glucose which is 24 mmol/l and capillary ketone level is 4 mmol/l. A venous blood gas demonstrates a pH of 7.28 and a potassium level of 5.7 mmol/l.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the best initial immediate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Start sliding-scale insulin infusion

      Correct Answer: 0.9% saline intravenously (IV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Prioritizing Fluid Resuscitation and Insulin Infusion

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt management. Diagnosis is based on elevated blood glucose and ketone levels, as well as low pH and bicarbonate levels. The first step in management is fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline to restore circulating volume. This should be followed by a fixed-rate insulin infusion to address the underlying metabolic disturbance. Dextrose infusion should not be used in patients with high blood glucose levels. Potassium replacement is only necessary when levels fall below 5.5 mmol/l during insulin infusion. By prioritizing fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion, healthcare providers can effectively manage DKA and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      38.8
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man from a nursing home was brought in by ambulance to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man from a nursing home was brought in by ambulance to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell. He was recently treated with amoxicillin for community acquired pneumonia by his GP. The nursing staff said yesterday he was complaining of some muscle pain and weakness and tiredness. He has been vomiting over the last few days. He has a past medical history of asthma, type II diabetes, gout, hypercholesterolaemia and osteoarthritis. Medication includes simvastatin, co-codamol, allopurinol, metformin and a salbutamol inhaler. On examination:
      Investigation Result Normal
      Respiratory rate (RR) 23 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Blood pressure (BP) 126/68 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 98 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
      Temperature 36.8ºC 36.1–37.2°C
      He is drowsy but nothing remarkable otherwise. An arterial blood gas (ABG) on air showed:
      Investigation Result Normal
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pO2 12.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 5.5 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol/l 22–26 mmol/l
      BE 1.0 –2 +2
      What is the most likely cause of the above presentation and investigation results?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Analysis of Possible Causes for Metabolic Acidosis in an Elderly Patient

      The arterial blood gas (ABG) results of an elderly patient showed metabolic acidosis, which could be explained by several factors. One possible cause is metformin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal (GI) upset and lactic acidosis in patients with impaired renal function, which may be aggravated by dehydration caused by vomiting. Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function and fluid balance in patients taking metformin.

      Another medication that the patient is taking is simvastatin, a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. Although statins can cause rhabdomyolysis and myalgia, they are unlikely to cause metabolic acidosis. Therefore, simvastatin is not a likely cause for the ABG results.

      The patient’s history does not suggest unresolved pneumonia, which could cause respiratory acidosis or failure. Therefore, pneumonia is an unlikely cause for the ABG results.

      Allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout and kidney stones, is inconsistent with the presentation and ABG results. Therefore, allopurinol is an unlikely cause for the ABG results.

      Co-codamol, a combination of codeine and paracetamol, may cause drowsiness in elderly patients, but it is not likely to cause metabolic acidosis. Therefore, co-codamol is an unlikely cause for the ABG results.

      In summary, the most likely cause for the metabolic acidosis in the elderly patient is metformin, which should be monitored and adjusted accordingly. Other possible causes should be ruled out or addressed as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      102.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology (0/3) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (3/5) 60%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/3) 0%
Medicine (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed