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  • Question 1 - An obese 28-year-old female visits her GP with concerns about acne and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An obese 28-year-old female visits her GP with concerns about acne and difficulty conceiving after trying to get pregnant for two years. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Woman with Acne and Infertility

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), endogenous Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), and primary hypoparathyroidism are all potential differential diagnoses for a woman presenting with acne and infertility. PCOS is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism, including excess terminal body hair in a male distribution pattern, acne, and male-pattern hair loss. Endogenous Cushing’s syndrome and primary hypoparathyroidism are less likely, as they do not present with acne and infertility. Addison’s disease is characterized by hyperpigmentation, weakness, fatigue, poor appetite, and weight loss, while CAH may present with oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, and/or infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear, with occasional vertigo. His coworkers have recently commented that he speaks loudly on the phone. On examination his tympanic membranes appear normal.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ménière’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Ménière’s disease is a progressive inner ear disorder that can cause a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. In contrast, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by specific movements, while cholesteatoma typically presents with recurrent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Presbyacusis, or age-related hearing loss, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Although impacted ear wax can cause similar symptoms, normal tympanic membranes suggest that Ménière’s disease is more likely.

      Diagnosis of Ménière’s disease is based on a history of at least two spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting 20 minutes each, along with tinnitus and/or a sense of fullness in the ear canal, and confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry. Management includes self-care advice such as vestibular rehabilitation, medication such as prochlorperazine for acute attacks and betahistine for prevention, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other causes. Patients should also consider the risks of certain activities, such as driving or operating heavy machinery, during severe symptoms. With proper management, patients with Ménière’s disease can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of Addison's disease, taking hydrocortisone (20 mg in the mornings and 10mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?

      Your Answer: Continue to take the same dose + prescribe a proton pump inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40mg mornings and 20mg afternoon

      Explanation:

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.

      Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.

      Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.

      Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is the primary causative factor responsible for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with human papillomavirus, specifically types 16, 18, and 33, among others.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP with a blood pressure reading of 170/110 mmHg. She is feeling well otherwise and is currently taking 250 mg labetalol. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Fetal monitoring is normal. Her blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 135 g/l, platelet count of 280 * 109/l, white blood cell count of 6.0 * 109/l, sodium level of 142 mmol/l, potassium level of 4.0 mmol/l, urea level of 2.8 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 24 µmol/l. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Despite the absence of symptoms, the patient’s blood pressure remains elevated at a level exceeding 160/100 mmHg, and there is also significant proteinuria, despite receiving labetalol treatment. As a result, emergency admission is necessary to monitor and manage the hypertension in a controlled setting. If there is no improvement, delivery may be considered as an option.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases

      Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.

      Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his persistent eczematous rashes, pruritus, loose stools and colic symptoms for a few weeks. The mother is uncertain about the frequency of occurrence but reports that it is happening daily. Despite using emollients, there has been no improvement. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-IgE-Mediated Cows’ Milk Protein Allergy

      When a child presents with a combination of cutaneous and gastrointestinal symptoms, an allergy to cows’ milk protein is the most likely cause. This is especially true for infants who are being weaned onto cows’ milk, as in this case. However, it’s important to note that this type of allergy is often confused with lactose intolerance, which is a different condition altogether.

      One key indicator that this is a non-IgE-mediated allergy is the presence of an eczematous rash rather than an immediate reaction following ingestion. This is in contrast to an IgE-mediated reaction, which would result in an urticarial rash and occur immediately after milk was ingested.

      It’s also worth noting that this is not likely to be eczema, as the symptoms have not improved with emollients and there are accompanying gastrointestinal symptoms. Similarly, a peanut allergy can be ruled out as the symptoms do not fit the diagnosis of an IgE-mediated reaction.

      Overall, understanding the nuances of non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his hands. He reports feeling embarrassed in social situations, particularly when he has to shake hands with someone. He is also concerned about how this may impact his upcoming A-level exams.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aluminium chloride

      Explanation:

      Hyperhidrosis is not treated with beta blockers like propranolol or calcium channel blockers like nifedipine.

      Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old man presents to the infertility clinic with a low sperm count...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the infertility clinic with a low sperm count and suspected left varicocele, as noted by his GP. He also has a history of hypertension treated with ramipril and has been experiencing night sweats intermittently over the past few months. His FBC shows anaemia and his ESR is markedly raised. Additionally, haematuria is present on urinalysis. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Renal Cell Carcinoma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that often presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass. However, other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and pyrexia may also occur. In some cases, paraneoplastic symptoms like a raised ESR may be present. Diagnosis involves FBC to check for anaemia or polycythaemia. Left-sided varicocele may also occur due to tumour invasion of the left renal vein. Prognosis depends on the tumour stage at diagnosis, with a 5-year survival rate of 60-70% for tumours confined to the renal parenchyma, 15-35% for lymph node involvement, and only 5% for distant metastases. It is important to differentiate renal cell carcinoma from other conditions such as lymphoma, multiple myeloma, testicular carcinoma, and chronic urinary tract infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
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