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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with lung cancer was admitted to the Emergency department due to respiratory distress. Upon examination, his ECG revealed electrical alternans. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Pericardial Tamponade: Commonly Caused by Malignant Diseases
Pericardial tamponade is a condition where the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, becomes filled with fluid or blood, putting pressure on the heart and preventing it from functioning properly. Malignant diseases are the most common cause of pericardial tamponade, often resulting from malignant infiltration associated with a large effusion. However, tamponade can also occur as a result of any type of pericarditis.
When pericardial tamponade occurs, the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and low blood pressure. Diagnosis is typically made through imaging tests such as echocardiography or CT scans.
On an electrocardiogram (ECG), sinus tachycardia, low volume, and electrical alternans – variability of the complexes – are often observed. Treatment for pericardial tamponade typically involves draining the fluid or blood from the pericardium, either through a needle or a surgical procedure. In severe cases, emergency surgery may be necessary to prevent further damage to the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.
The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.
Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: McArdle's disease
Correct Answer: Statin-induced myopathy
Explanation:Statins and Muscle Disorders
Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently returned from a trip to Italy with her family. She has no significant medical history but takes oral contraceptives. On examination, her pulse is 100 bpm, temperature is 37°C, oxygen saturation is 95%, respiratory rate is 28/min, and blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. Chest examination is unremarkable and chest x-ray is normal. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: CTPA scan
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism in a Woman with Chest Pain and Dyspnoea
This woman is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing, with a rapid heart rate and breathing rate. However, there are no visible signs on chest examination and her chest x-ray appears normal. Despite having no fever, her oxygen levels are lower than expected for a healthy person. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, doctors must consider risk factors such as recent air travel and use of oral contraceptives.
The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is a CT pulmonary angiogram, as it can detect even large saddle emboli near the pulmonary arteries. While VQ scanning was previously used, it can miss these larger emboli. Additionally, doctors may perform Doppler ultrasounds of the venous system to check for deep vein thrombosis.
This presentation is not indicative of atypical pneumonia, such as Legionella, as the patient’s temperature would be expected to be high and chest signs would be present. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a pulmonary embolism in a patient with chest pain and dyspnoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
Temperature 36.2 °C
Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
Heart rate 112 bpm
Saturations 96% on room air
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?Your Answer: Maintenance fluids based on the Parkland formula
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h
Explanation:Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance
Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.
The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.
What is the most important first drug intervention?Your Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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You are the medical SHO in A and E. A 25-year-old female is admitted in a distressed state and experiencing shortness of breath. She is finding it difficult to speak in complete sentences and is breathing rapidly. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 120 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 90%, and her peak expiratory flow rate is less than 50% of predicted. The emergency medical services have administered salbutamol 5 mg twice and provided face mask oxygen. An ABG test is pending. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?
Your Answer: Salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg with oxygen
Explanation:Management of Life-Threatening Asthma
Patients with life-threatening asthma, characterized by saturations under 92% in air, require immediate administration of β2-agonists, preferably nebulizer with oxygen. Repeat doses should be given at 15-30 minute intervals, or continuous nebulization can be used if there is an inadequate response to bolus therapy. Nebulized ipratropium bromide should be added for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those with a poor initial response. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Steroids should be given as soon as possible, with a dose of 40-50 mg continued for five days or until recovery. Failure to respond to these treatments may warrant the use of intravenous magnesium sulfate and aminophylline, but only after discussion with senior colleagues. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life-threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy.
It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is a suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or in cases of life-threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Attempting intubation prior to further therapy is not recommended, especially for those inexperienced in the technique, as there are other treatments that can be tried first before this step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of severe weakness, obtundation, and poor oral intake.
One month ago, CT of the head revealed multiple intracerebral lesions. He underwent cranial irradiation and received dexamethasone, 12 mg orally daily.
On examination he is unwell and disoriented. Temperature is 36.6°C, pulse is 100/min, respiratory rate is 28/min and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg supine. Chest examination and heart examination are normal. There is lower abdominal tenderness, especially in the suprapubic area. Diffuse muscle weakness is noted. No lateralizing neurologic signs or abnormal reflexes are noted.
Investigations reveal:
White cell count 19.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Plasma glucose 40 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Urea 25 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 160 µmol/L (60-110)
Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (20-28)
Urinalysis Glucose +++
Protein ++
Moderate bacteria seen
Cultures of blood and urine are requested and he is treated with an intravenous sliding scale insulin.
Which of the following IV fluids would you prescribe in conjunction with the insulin sliding scale for this patient?Your Answer: 5% Dextrose
Correct Answer: Normal saline
Explanation:Management of Excessive Hyperglycaemia in a Dehydrated Patient
This patient is experiencing excessive hyperglycaemia, which is contributing to her symptoms and is related to hyperosmolarity. However, her normal bicarbonate levels suggest that she does not have Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS), but rather dehydration. Additionally, her marked hyperglycaemia is likely caused by the dexamethasone she is taking, which is causing insulin resistance.
To manage her condition, the patient requires IV normal saline to address her dehydration, along with insulin to regulate her blood glucose levels. Once her blood glucose levels have decreased to 10 mmol/L, she can switch to IV dextrose. This approach will help to address her crystalloid requirements and manage her hyperglycaemia effectively.
In summary, managing excessive hyperglycaemia in a dehydrated patient requires a careful approach that addresses both the underlying cause of the hyperglycaemia and the patient’s hydration status. By providing IV fluids and insulin as needed, healthcare providers can help to regulate the patient’s blood glucose levels and improve their overall condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe headache that started six hours ago. She also reports feeling nauseous and has vomited three times. Upon examination, she has neck stiffness and photophobia, but her GCS is 15 and she has no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Diagnosing Severe Headaches: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage and Differential Diagnosis
The sudden onset of a severe headache is a strong indication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which can be confirmed through a head CT scan. If the scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed to check for red blood cells and xanthochromia. Bacterial meningitis is also a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with other symptoms of sepsis such as fever. Migraines, on the other hand, are usually preceded by an aura and visual disturbances, and are often associated with prior history and risk factors. Sinusitis and cluster headaches are not suggested by the patient’s history.
Overall, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses when evaluating severe headaches, as prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with abnormal blood results. His test results show Hepatitis B surface antigen positive, IgG Anti-HBc antibody positive, IgM Anti-HBc antibody negative, and Anti-Hepatitis B surface antibody negative. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Chronically infected with hepatitis B
Explanation:Hepatitis B Surface Antigen and Antibodies
The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host’s cells, whether it is an acute or chronic infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and will no longer be present in chronic infection. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared.
Antibodies to the surface antigen develop in vaccinated individuals, providing natural immunity once the infection has cleared. If a patient has developed antibodies to HBsAg, they would be HBsAg negative and would not be a hepatitis B chronic carrier. the presence and absence of these antigens and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: MRI head
Correct Answer: CT head scan
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.
During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.
While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are asked to assess a 75-year-old man who has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and congestive heart failure. He has come to the hospital with worsening paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and three pillow orthopnea, and is currently experiencing acute shortness of breath.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 120 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse has ordered a chest x-ray for the patient.
Which of the following findings would be inconsistent with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?Your Answer: Kerley B lines
Correct Answer: Globular heart
Explanation:Radiographic Signs of Congestive Cardiac Failure
Congestive cardiac failure is a common reason for hospital admission, and it is important for all clinicians to be familiar with its presentation. One of the initial investigations is a chest radiograph, which can reveal various signs depending on the severity and acuteness of the condition.
The earliest radiographic sign of congestive cardiac failure is the appearance of Kerley B lines, which indicate interstitial oedema and are typically found in the middle and lower zones of the lungs. Kerley A lines, on the other hand, are seen in the upper zones. As the condition progresses, alveolar oedema becomes more prominent and is distributed in a bat’s wing pattern around the hilar region. This leads to significant V/Q mismatch in the lower zones, causing upper lobe blood diversion to improve oxygenation.
Bilateral pleural effusions, which are transudative in nature, are a common finding in congestive cardiac failure. In the long term, cardiomegaly may occur as a compensatory mechanism, but a globular heart is not typically associated with this condition. A globular heart is usually due to a pericardial effusion.
In summary, the radiographic signs of congestive cardiac failure is crucial for clinicians in order to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted. He states that he was hit in the nose, resulting in swelling, deformity, and a small nosebleed. He also reports difficulty breathing through his left nostril. Upon examination, there is no active bleeding, but there is some deviation of the nasal bones to the left and no septal haematoma. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Arrange an ENT follow up appointment for within the next one week
Explanation:Emergency Admission for Isolated Nasal Injuries
Isolated nasal injuries are a common occurrence that often presents in the Emergency department. However, emergency admission is rarely necessary for these cases. There are only three exceptions to this rule, which are patients with a septal haematoma, a compound nasal fracture, or associated epistaxis.
It is important to note that nasal bone x-rays are not required for diagnosis, as it can be determined entirely through clinical examination. For uncomplicated cases, patients are best reviewed after five days in the ENT clinic when associated swelling has subsided. This allows for a better assessment of whether manipulation of the fracture is necessary.
Traumatic epistaxis can be a serious complication and may require packing if there is active bleeding. It is crucial to monitor patients with this condition closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. Overall, while isolated nasal injuries are common, emergency admission is only necessary in specific cases, and proper diagnosis and management are essential for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for an hour. Upon examination, he is tall and slim with a blood pressure reading of 135/80 mmHg and an early diastolic murmur. The electrocardiogram reveals 1 mm ST elevation in II, III, and aVF. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Urgent CT scan of chest
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Chest Pain
This patient’s presentation of chest pain may not be typical and could potentially be caused by an inferior myocardial infarction or aortic artery dissection. However, thrombolysis could be dangerous and should be avoided until a proper diagnosis is made. Due to the patient’s young age, a wide range of potential diagnoses should be considered.
The patient’s physical characteristics, including being tall and slim with an aortic diastolic murmur, suggest the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection. To confirm this diagnosis, a thorough examination of all peripheral pulses should be conducted, as well as checking for discrepancies in blood pressure between limbs. Additionally, a plain chest x-ray should be scrutinized for signs of a widened mediastinum, an enlarged cardiac silhouette, or pleural effusions.
In summary, a young patient presenting with chest pain requires a thorough differential diagnosis to determine the underlying cause. Careful examination of physical characteristics and diagnostic tests can help identify potential conditions such as Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection, and avoid potentially harmful treatments like thrombolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 47-year-old female collapses at home and is referred to the medical team. She has had two episodes of haematemesis in the emergency department, but no melaena. Her family denies any history of alcohol excess, and she has been otherwise healthy.
Upon examination, the patient appears pale and sweaty with a pulse of 110 bpm. Her lying blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, which drops by 30 mmHg systolic upon standing. Palmar erythema, purpura, and spider naevi are noted. There is no hepatomegaly, but a fullness is present in the left hypochondrium.
What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Emergency upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding with Haemodynamic Compromise
This patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding and is showing signs of significant haemodynamic compromise, as indicated by her hypotension and postural drop. The most likely cause of this bleeding is variceal bleeding, which is often associated with chronic liver disease and portal hypertension. Urgent endoscopy is necessary in this case, as over 50% of patients with variceal bleeding require intervention such as banding or sclerotherapy, and the condition is associated with a high mortality rate. The underlying cause of the portal hypertension is unknown, so there is no need for vitamin supplementation unless alcohol excess is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department and has a witnessed seizure in the resuscitation room. His blood glucose is recorded as 1.0 mmol/L. He does not have diabetes, nor other significant medical history. He is given 50 ml of 50% dextrose and he slowly recovers over the next one hour. A serum cortisol concentration later returns as 800 nmol/L (120-600). What investigation would be most relevant for this man?
Your Answer: CT head scan
Correct Answer: Prolonged 72 hour fast
Explanation:Diagnosis of Spontaneous Hypoglycaemia
The patient’s medical history and biochemical evidence suggest a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, with the most likely cause being an insulinoma. However, it is important to rule out the possibility of drug administration, and a sulphonylurea screen should be conducted. The patient has presented with symptomatic hypoglycaemia, despite not being diabetic and not having received insulin or a sulphonylurea. There is no indication of alcohol or drug misuse, nor is there any evidence of sepsis.
To confirm a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, a prolonged fast is necessary. If the patient experiences hypoglycaemia during the fast, insulin and C peptide levels should be measured to confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s cortisol response during the hypoglycaemic episode (cortisol 800) rules out hypoadrenalism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis B. His blood tests show positive results for hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies. However, he tests negative for IgM anti Hbc and anti-hepatitis B surface antibody. What is the man's current disease status?
Your Answer: Acutely infected
Correct Answer: Chronically infected
Explanation:Hepatitis B and its Markers
Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.
Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at 2 am for a patient experiencing a tonic clonic seizure. The nurse informs you that the patient, who is in for neuro observations, sustained a head injury six hours ago in the Emergency Department. The patient currently has an IV cannula, but the nurse has already administered PR diazepam as prescribed on the drug chart. The seizure has been ongoing for about 8 minutes now.
Fifteen minutes ago, the patient's neuro observations were as follows: HR 70, BP 135/65 mmHg, RR 18, O2 97% on room air, and BM 7.0.
What would be your next course of drug therapy for this patient, who is slightly older than the previous case?Your Answer: Lorazepam 4 mg IV
Explanation:Management Algorithm for Seizures
It is crucial to have knowledge of the management algorithm for seizures to prevent prolonged seizures that can lead to cerebral damage and hypoxia. The first line of management is a benzodiazepine, which can be repeated if there is no improvement after five minutes of ongoing fitting. Intravenous administration is preferred, but if an IV line is not available, the rectal route is recommended for ease and speed of treatment. Rectal diazepam is commonly prescribed on the PRN section of the drug chart for nursing staff who cannot administer IV drugs.
In cases where an IV line is present and seizures persist, an IV benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is preferred due to its quick onset and shorter duration of action. Buccal midazolam is now being used in children as a quick and easy route of administration that avoids distressing PR administration. If seizures continue despite two doses of benzodiazepines, phenytoin should be initiated, and senior and expert help is required. If seizures persist, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.
It is important to remember to obtain an early blood sugar test as hypoglycemic patients may remain refractive to antiepileptic therapies until their sugars are normalized. The acronym ABC then DEFG (Do not ever forget glucose) can help in remembering the order of management steps. Proper management of seizures can prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What virus is described as a picornavirus with a single stranded RNA genome, transmitted through faecal-oral route, and has no chronic sequelae?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A is a type of picornavirus that is responsible for approximately 40% of hepatitis cases worldwide. Unlike other hepatitis viruses, it has a single stranded RNA genome. The virus is commonly spread through poor sanitation and overcrowding, typically through the faecal-oral route. It can survive for months in both fresh and saltwater, and shellfish from polluted water can have a high infectivity rate.
Early symptoms of hepatitis A can be similar to the flu, but some patients, particularly children, may not show any physical symptoms. The incubation period for the virus is typically two to six weeks, after which patients may experience general symptoms such as fever, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and jaundice. Fatigue and abdominal pain are also common symptoms.
Diagnosis of hepatitis A is done by detecting HAV-specific IgM antibodies in the blood. Unfortunately, there is no medical treatment for hepatitis A. Patients are advised to rest and avoid fatty foods and alcohol. Symptomatic treatment, such as antiemetics, may be given if necessary.
Overall, the symptoms and transmission of hepatitis A is important in preventing its spread. Proper sanitation and hygiene practices, as well as avoiding contaminated water and food, can help reduce the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has a two day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours he has become increasingly drowsy.
On examination, he was unresponsive to verbal commands. His temperature was 36.5°C and his blood pressure was 74/48 mmHg. The following investigations were done:
- Sodium: 121 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 6.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 11.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 162 µmol/L (60-110)
- Glucose: 1.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Chloride: 91 mmol/L (95-107)
- Bicarbonate: 14 mmol/L (20-28)
After giving emergency treatment, what single investigation would be most valuable in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Tetracosactrin (Synacthen) test
Explanation:Addisonian Crisis and Diagnosis with Synacthen Test
The patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis, which is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone hormones. To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, a Synacthen test is performed. This test involves injecting a synthetic hormone called Synacthen, which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Blood samples are taken before and after the injection to measure the levels of cortisol in the blood. If the adrenal glands are functioning properly, the cortisol levels will increase significantly after the injection. However, if the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, the levels will remain low. The Synacthen test is a reliable and accurate way to diagnose Addison’s disease and determine the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to diagnose and treat Addison’s disease promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests. The doctor explains that the patient is highly contagious and at a greater risk of long-term disease. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be seen in this patient?
HbSAg Anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc IgG anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe
A + - + + + -
B - + - + - +
C + - - + + -
D + - - + - +
E - + - - - -Your Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:Hepatitis B Infection and Immunity
The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host cells, whether it is a chronic or acute infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and disappear in chronic infection, while IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared. Vaccinated individuals develop antibodies to the surface antigen, which confers natural immunity after the infection has cleared.
If HBsAg persists for more than six months, the patient is a chronic carrier. HBeAg is a marker of virus replication, and HBeAg-positive carriers are highly infectious. However, over time, the HBeAg can be lost from the blood, and anti-HBe can be detected. These carriers are much less infectious.
In summary, acute HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgM antibodies, while cleared HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgG antibodies. Chronic HBV infection can be high or low in infectivity, depending on the presence of HBeAg or anti-HBe. Finally, individuals who respond to the HBV vaccine develop immunity to the virus. these markers and their implications can aid in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is referred following a collapse at home. He is currently taking diclofenac for persistent low back pain. Upon examination, he appears pale and has a pulse of 110 beats per minute. His blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg while sitting and drops to 85/40 mmHg when standing. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: 24 ambulatory ECG
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination
Explanation:Syncopal Collapse and Possible Upper GI Bleed
This patient experienced a syncopal collapse, which is likely due to hypovolemia, as evidenced by her postural drop in blood pressure. It is possible that she had an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed caused by gastric irritation from her non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. A rectal examination that shows melaena would confirm this suspicion.
To determine the cause of her condition, a full blood count is necessary. Afterward, appropriate fluid resuscitation, correction of anemia, and an upper GI endoscopy should be performed instead of further cardiological or neurological evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and malaise. She recently returned from a holiday in southern Spain and has since developed a non-productive cough with chills that have worsened. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes per day but no other medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 40°C, blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, and a pulse of 106 bpm. Chest examination reveals inspiratory crackles at the left base only, with a respiratory rate of 28/min. Baseline investigations show haziness at the left base on CXR, Hb 128 g/L (115-165), WCC 5.5 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60-110), Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Weil's disease
Correct Answer: Legionnaires disease
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: A Community-Acquired Pneumonia
This patient’s medical history and symptoms suggest that they have contracted a community-acquired pneumonia. However, despite the obvious infection, their white cell count appears relatively normal, indicating that they may have an atypical pneumonia. Further investigation reveals that the patient recently traveled to Spain and is experiencing hyponatremia, which are both indicative of Legionnaires disease. This disease is caused by the Legionella pneumophila organism and is typically spread through infected water supplies, such as air conditioning systems.
To diagnose Legionnaires disease, doctors typically look for the presence of urinary antigen before any rise in serum antibody titres. Fortunately, the organism is sensitive to macrolides and ciprofloxacin, which can be used to treat the disease. Overall, it is important for doctors to consider Legionnaire’s disease as a potential cause of community-acquired pneumonia, especially in patients with a recent history of travel and hyponatremia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.
Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Arrange urgent CT scan of head
Correct Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart
Explanation:Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients
When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.
Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old asthmatic has been admitted to the hospital with a worsening wheeze that has persisted for 24 hours. You are urgently called as the patient has become acutely short of breath despite receiving three sets of salbutamol nebulisers. The patient is now hypotensive and desaturating. Upon examination, you notice reduced air entry with a resonant percussion note in the left lung field and a trachea deviated to the right. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Simple pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Urgent Treatment for Evolving Pneumothorax
This patient is showing clinical signs of a developing pneumothorax, which requires urgent treatment. While a tension pneumothorax is typically associated with a deviated trachea and hyper-resonance, these signs may not appear until later stages. It is possible that the patient has a simple pneumothorax, but given their hypotension, urgent needle decompression is necessary to treat a potential tension pneumothorax. In such cases, chest imaging should not be prioritized over immediate intervention. The procedure involves inserting a large bore needle in the second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line, followed by a chest drain.
Pneumonia can often trigger asthma exacerbations, which can lead to severe chest sepsis and SIRS criteria evolving into severe sepsis. In such cases, ARDS may be the predominant clinical picture with wet lung fields. While massive pulmonary embolism can also cause desaturation and hypotension, there are no other apparent risk factors in this patient’s case. It is important to note that while acute asthma exacerbations can cause anxiety, the diagnosis of panic attacks should only be made after excluding other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is experiencing uncontrolled tachycardia despite treatment with digoxin and bisoprolol, leading to acute left ventricular dysfunction. The patient has been prescribed amiodarone. What investigation must be done before starting amiodarone?
Your Answer: Fasting lipid profile
Correct Answer: Thyroid function test
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Function
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can have adverse effects on thyroid function. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can occur as a result of amiodarone use. Clinical assessment alone may not be reliable in detecting these disorders, so the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends laboratory testing before treatment and every six months during therapy.
It is important to note that amiodarone can cause an elevation in thyroxine (T4) levels, even in the absence of hyperthyroidism. This is due to the medication’s inhibition of the conversion of T4 to triiodothyronine (T3). Therefore, it is crucial to test for both thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T3 in addition to T4.
In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also be hepatotoxic, meaning it can cause liver damage. If evidence of liver dysfunction develops, treatment with amiodarone should be discontinued. Regular monitoring and testing can help detect and manage these potential adverse effects of amiodarone therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a productive cough, fever, and occasional wheezing. Despite using his regular salbutamol inhaler, his shortness of breath has been worsening, prompting him to seek medical attention at the hospital.
After being assessed by a colleague, the patient has received four rounds of back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, one round of ipratropium nebulisers, and intravenous hydrocortisone. However, the patient's condition is deteriorating, with increasing respiratory rate and speaking in words only. His chest is now silent, and his oxygen saturation is at 90% despite receiving 10 litres of oxygen.
What is the next recommended therapeutic intervention for this patient?Your Answer: Adrenaline nebuliser 5 mg 1:1000
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2 g
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society guidelines should be followed for managing acute asthma, with patients stratified into moderate, severe, or life threatening categories. This patient has life threatening features and may require anaesthetic intervention for intubation and ventilation. Magnesium sulphate is the next important drug intervention. Adrenaline nebulisers have no role unless there are signs of upper airway obstruction. Aminophylline infusions are no longer recommended for initial stabilisation. Salbutamol inhalers can be used as a rescue measure in moderate exacerbations but have no role in severe or life threatening cases. Both prednisone and hydrocortisone are equally effective for steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by a group of individuals who quickly leave before medical staff can speak with them. The patient is barely conscious, with a respiratory rate of 8/min, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, and a pulse of 60 bpm. Needle track marks are visible on his arms, and his pupils are constricted. What is the first treatment you would provide?
Your Answer: Atropine
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Opiate Toxicity and the Role of Naloxone
Opiate toxicity is a common occurrence among individuals who abuse street drugs like heroin. This condition is characterized by respiratory depression and small pupils, which can lead to unconsciousness. To address this issue, naloxone is often administered as it is an opiate receptor antagonist that can quickly relieve the symptoms of opiate toxicity. However, it is important to note that naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opiates, which means that multiple doses may be necessary to fully address the issue. Overall, naloxone plays a crucial role in addressing opiate toxicity and can help save lives in emergency situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found semi-conscious at home. Upon examination, the patient has a Glasgow coma scale of 12, a fever of 39.5°C, a pulse of 120/min, a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, photophobia, and meningism. The medical team has already inserted a cannula and sent blood cultures. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: CT head followed by lumbar puncture and then IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: IV antibiotics followed by CT head and subsequent lumbar puncture
Explanation:Importance of CT Head Scanning and Lumbar Puncture in Suspected Bacterial Meningitis
The availability of 24-hour computerised tomography (CT) head scanning in hospitals is crucial in the early recognition of any contraindications to lumbar puncture (LP) in patients with suspected bacterial meningitis. Prior to LP, a CT head scan should be performed to prevent the risk of brain herniation or coning. However, it is important to note that antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for CT head scanning as this may prove fatal. In any case of suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Clinicians can refer to the Meningitis Research Foundation Clinician’s Guide to Recognition and Early Management of Meningococcal Disease in Children for further information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?
Your Answer: Urgent surgical consult
Correct Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following a deliberate overdose of an unknown drug.
She is accompanied by her husband who tells you that she has a long history of anxiety and depression and takes fluoxetine 20 mg od and lorazepam 2 mg bd.
On primary assessment, her airway is clear but she only groans when sternal rub is applied. Her chest is clear to auscultation but her respiratory rate is 6 ventilations per minute and oxygen saturations are 93% on air.
Heart sounds are normal with a rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Capillary blood glucose is 6.3 mmol/L. Her GCS is 8/15 (E1, V2, M5) but her pupils are slowly reactive bilaterally and size 4. All limbs appear to move equally and there is no apparent injury. She smells of alcohol.
What is the first most appropriate step in the immediate management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and commence high flow oxygen
Explanation:The ABCDE approach is important for assessing acutely unwell patients. Protecting the airway is paramount in this case, as the patient’s level of consciousness threatens it. Oxygen and a nasopharyngeal airway are the first steps. Flumazenil and naloxone are not indicated, as the drug taken is unknown and opioid overdose is unlikely. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the time of ingestion is unknown. Prophylactic intubation is reasonable but not mandatory. Arterial blood gases can help determine ventilation, but supplemental oxygen and airway adjuncts are reasonable first steps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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