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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of a painless lump in her right groin....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of a painless lump in her right groin. She denies any changes in bowel habits or abdominal discomfort. Her medical history includes asthma and three previous vaginal deliveries. Upon examination, a soft swelling is palpable with a positive cough impulse. The lump is located inferolateral to the right pubic tubercle, fully reducible, and non-tender. Both femoral pulses are palpated separately and are normal. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to the surgical team for consideration of surgical repair

      Explanation:

      Surgical referral for repair is necessary for femoral hernias, regardless of symptoms, due to the risk of strangulation. In this case, the patient’s history and examination suggest a hernia, potentially a femoral hernia, and surgical repair is necessary. The use of a support belt could increase the risk of strangulation, and a duplex scan, while a good idea, is not the most appropriate management for this patient. No action is unsafe, and antibiotics are not currently indicated.

      Understanding Femoral Hernias

      Femoral hernias occur when a part of the bowel or other abdominal organs pass through the femoral canal, which is a potential space in the anterior thigh. This can result in a lump in the groin area that is mildly painful and typically non-reducible. Femoral hernias are less common than inguinal hernias, accounting for only 5% of abdominal hernias, and are more prevalent in women, especially those who have had multiple pregnancies. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but ultrasound may be used to confirm the presence of a femoral hernia and exclude other possible causes of a lump in the groin area.

      Complications of femoral hernias include incarceration, where the herniated tissue cannot be reduced, and strangulation, which is a surgical emergency. The risk of strangulation is higher with femoral hernias than with inguinal hernias and increases over time. Bowel obstruction and bowel ischaemia may also occur, leading to significant morbidity and mortality for the patient.

      Surgical repair is necessary for femoral hernias, and it can be done laparoscopically or via a laparotomy. Hernia support belts or trusses should not be used for femoral hernias due to the risk of strangulation. In an emergency situation, a laparotomy may be the only option. It is essential to distinguish femoral hernias from inguinal hernias, as they have different locations and require different management approaches.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old overweight male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old overweight male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden epigastric pain accompanied by sweating, nausea, and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of 25 pack-years and has previously been diagnosed with hypertension and high cholesterol levels. The pain began approximately one hour ago while he was lifting heavy objects and has not subsided despite taking antacids and paracetamol at home. What is the initial investigation that should be performed?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      The patient’s risk factors and clinical features suggest a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome (ACS), which requires urgent investigation. An ECG should be performed to aid in diagnosis and guide immediate management. While an abdominal ultrasound may be useful in investigating his symptoms, other more urgent investigations should be prioritized. An abdominal x-ray is unlikely to be helpful in this case, and a chest x-ray may be requested due to the patient’s history of breathlessness. Blood tests may be useful in investigating the cause of his abdominal pain, but should not be the first investigation.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - As a first-year resident on a surgical rotation, which of the following procedures...

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    • As a first-year resident on a surgical rotation, which of the following procedures would necessitate the use of prophylactic antibiotics?

      Your Answer: Appendicectomy

      Explanation:

      Preventing Surgical Site Infections

      Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. These infections occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces, allowing normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. In many cases, the organisms causing the infection are derived from the patient’s own body. Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include shaving the wound using a razor, using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape, tissue hypoxia, and delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery.

      To prevent SSIs, there are several steps that can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Before surgery, it is recommended to avoid routine removal of body hair and to use electrical clippers with a single-use head if hair needs to be removed. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be considered for certain types of surgery, such as placement of a prosthesis or valve, clean-contaminated surgery, and contaminated surgery. Local formulary should be used, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is to be used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier.

      During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, which has been shown to have the lowest incidence of SSI. The surgical site should be covered with a dressing, and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer any benefit. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for the management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention. The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated in the NICE guidelines, but several randomized controlled trials have demonstrated no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute left-sided flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute left-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The pain is colicky and accompanied by nausea, but no fever or vomiting. The patient has a history of anxiety and depression and is currently taking sertraline. What is the recommended first-line analgesic for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IV paracetamol

      Correct Answer: IM diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for acute renal colic includes the use of IM diclofenac, according to guidelines. The patient’s symptoms, such as sudden and severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and nausea, suggest renal calculi. NSAIDs, including diclofenac, are the first-line choice for analgesia in renal colic. Ibuprofen cannot be given intravenously, but IV paracetamol can be used if NSAIDs are not effective or contraindicated. Opioid analgesics should only be considered if both NSAIDs and IV paracetamol are ineffective or contraindicated, due to their side effects. Therefore, IV tramadol and oral morphine are not the first-line choice for analgesia.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - A client is given local anaesthetic after a procedure. The physician injects 25...

    Incorrect

    • A client is given local anaesthetic after a procedure. The physician injects 25 ml of 1.5% lidocaine.
      What is the total amount of lidocaine in milligrams?

      Your Answer: 10 mg

      Correct Answer: 400mg

      Explanation:

      The strength of the solution is such that 2g are dissolved in every 100ml. This means that for every 100 ml of solution, 2g of lidocaine are dissolved. If 20 ml of the solution is infiltrated (which is one-fifth of 100ml), then the amount of lidocaine present in the infiltrated solution can be calculated by dividing 2g (which is equal to 2000mg) by 5.

      Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - You are caring for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with prostate...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is currently considering treatment options. He asks you to explain the complications of surgery to remove the prostate. What is another common complication of radical prostatectomy?

      Your Answer: Testicular atrophy

      Correct Answer: Erectile dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Radical prostatectomy often leads to erectile dysfunction as a complication. Other complications that may arise after the surgery include incontinence, urethral stenosis, and retrograde ejaculation due to alpha-blocker therapy or transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). However, blood in the sperm, testicular atrophy, and an overactive bladder are not caused by prostatectomy.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man is at his pre-operative assessment for his scheduled hernia repair...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is at his pre-operative assessment for his scheduled hernia repair next week. During the consultation, he informs the anaesthetist that his father and brother had a reaction to an anaesthetic in the past, which was later diagnosed as malignant hyperthermia.
      What medication should the anaesthetist avoid administering in this situation?

      Your Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Out of the drugs listed, suxamethonium is the only one that can trigger malignant hyperthermia. The rest of the drugs are considered safe for use in individuals with this condition.

      Malignant Hyperthermia: A Condition Triggered by Anaesthetic Agents

      Malignant hyperthermia is a medical condition that often occurs after the administration of anaesthetic agents. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity, which is caused by the excessive release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with defects in a gene on chromosome 19 that encodes the ryanodine receptor, which controls calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. It is worth noting that neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a similar aetiology.

      The causative agents of malignant hyperthermia include halothane, suxamethonium, and other drugs such as antipsychotics (which can trigger neuroleptic malignant syndrome). To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform tests such as checking for elevated levels of creatine kinase and conducting contracture tests with halothane and caffeine.

      The management of malignant hyperthermia involves the use of dantrolene, which prevents the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. With prompt and appropriate treatment, patients with malignant hyperthermia can recover fully. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of this condition, especially when administering anaesthetic agents.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man has been referred through the 2 week-wait colorectal cancer referral...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has been referred through the 2 week-wait colorectal cancer referral scheme due to a change in bowel habit. He reports experiencing tenesmus, weight loss, and a change in bowel habit for the past 3 months. A colonoscopy has been scheduled for him. What advice should be given to prepare him for the procedure?

      Your Answer: Laxatives required the day before the examination

      Explanation:

      Bowel prep is necessary for a colonoscopy.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old female presents with recurring abdominal pain that extends to her shoulder,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents with recurring abdominal pain that extends to her shoulder, especially after consuming heavy meals. She experiences nausea and vomiting during these episodes, but no chest pain or shortness of breath. There is no fever present. Upon examination, her pulse and respiratory rate are within normal limits. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic is characterized by abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that typically occur after consuming heavy meals. One distinguishing feature of this condition is that the pain can spread to the interscapular region, which is caused by irritation of the diaphragm. Unlike ascending cholangitis, biliary colic does not involve any infection. The absence of chest pain or shortness of breath, along with stable observations, rules out the possibility of pulmonary embolism. While GORD and peptic ulcers can also cause pain and vomiting after eating, they do not typically cause shoulder pain.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman presents with severe colicky central abdominal pain, vomiting, and the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with severe colicky central abdominal pain, vomiting, and the passage of abnormal stool which had the appearance of redcurrant jelly.

      On examination, temperature was 37.5°C, she has a pulse of 120 bpm with an irregular rate. Palpation of the abdomen revealed generalised tenderness and peritonitis.

      Investigations reveal:

      Haemoglobin 128 g/L (120-160)

      White cell count 30 ×109/L (4-11)

      Lactate 9 mmol/L (<2)

      pH 7.10 (7.36-7.44)

      She was taken to theatre for emergency surgery.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through consistent history and symptoms. In most cases, the underlying pathology is embolic occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery, which is often caused by undiagnosed atrial fibrillation. One of the key indicators of this condition is a lactic acidosis, which can be detected through an arterial blood gas analysis. The lactate levels are typically elevated due to the ischaemic tissue in the gut, resulting in a metabolic acidosis. It is important to note that a raised white blood cell count is not necessarily an indication of infection, but rather a part of the systemic inflammatory response to severe illness with ischaemic tissue. these key indicators can help in the diagnosis and treatment of acute mesenteric ischaemia.

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      • Surgery
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (6/10) 60%
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