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Question 1
Incorrect
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Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?
Your Answer: Has three sets of bellows
Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider
Explanation:It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 2
Correct
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Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?
Your Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 3
Correct
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An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a patient. At a normal physiological pH, the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised forms of this drug in the plasma is?
Your Answer: 1000:01:00
Explanation:The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).Hence, if the pKa ˆ’ pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 ˆ’ 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.
If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).
According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:
Your Answer: Slow influx of calcium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer: Can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases
Correct Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 6
Correct
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The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?
Your Answer: The systemic vascular resistance rises
Explanation:The umbilical vein closes once the umbilical cord is clamped following birth. This causes a rise in systemic vascular resistance, closing the ductus venosus.
Upon birth, the pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased as the lungs are aerated.
At birth, there is a rise in oxygen tension which causes the corresponding constriction of the ductus arteriosus. This prevents a left to right shunt as it stops aortic blood and blood from the pulmonary artery from mixing. The ventricles do no have an opening connecting them.
The foramen ovale closes soon after birth. It is the septum opening between the left and right atrium.
An adult’s cardiac output is expected to be 5 L/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?
Your Answer: Humidification of inspired gas by up to 100%
Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance
Explanation:Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following facts about IgE is true?
Your Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals
Explanation:Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.
The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.
IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.
Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Correct
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After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg? Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.
Your Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?
Your Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level
Explanation:The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
(10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.
Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.
Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.
A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest. What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrest
Your Answer: Chest compressions
Explanation:Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:
Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.
Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?
Your Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance
Explanation:The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.
ASA I A normal healthy patient
ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposesA 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II
A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II
A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III
A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II
A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?
Your Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)
Explanation:The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).
Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit. Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?
Your Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?
Your Answer: pKA
Explanation:For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).
The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.
Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET). Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?
Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Correct Answer: Neonate
Explanation:The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosisYoung children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.
At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.
When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.
Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?
Your Answer: Mean
Explanation:Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.
The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.
The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.
The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?
Your Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).
It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.
During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC ratio
Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.
Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution
The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer: Post tetanic count of 5
Explanation:A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.
Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.
During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5€‰min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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