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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient and initiate her treatment.
What condition will she develop if she goes untreated?Your Answer: Korsakoff psychosis
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.
The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.
It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 3-month-old boy is brought in by his parents with a history of breathing difficulties, fever, and a cough. He is irritable and having trouble with feeding. On examination, his temperature is 38.6°C, and you hear fine inspiratory crackles across his chest.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is a short-term infection of the lower respiratory tract that primarily affects infants aged 2 to 6 months. It is commonly caused by a viral infection, with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) being the most prevalent culprit. RSV infections are most prevalent during the winter months, typically occurring between November and March. In the UK, bronchiolitis is the leading cause of hospitalization among infants.
The typical symptoms of bronchiolitis include fever, difficulty breathing, coughing, poor feeding, irritability, apnoeas (more common in very young infants), and wheezing or fine inspiratory crackles. To confirm the diagnosis, a nasopharyngeal aspirate can be taken for RSV rapid testing. This test is useful in preventing unnecessary further testing and facilitating the isolation of the affected infant.
Most infants with acute bronchiolitis experience a mild, self-limiting illness that does not require hospitalization. Treatment primarily focuses on supportive measures, such as ensuring adequate fluid and nutritional intake and controlling the infant’s temperature. The illness typically lasts for 7 to 10 days.
However, hospital referral and admission are recommended in certain cases, including poor feeding (less than 50% of usual intake over the past 24 hours), lethargy, a history of apnoea, a respiratory rate exceeding 70 breaths per minute, nasal flaring or grunting, severe chest wall recession, cyanosis, oxygen saturations below 90% for children aged 6 weeks and over, and oxygen saturations below 92% for babies under 6 weeks or those with underlying health conditions.
If hospitalization is necessary, treatment involves supportive measures, supplemental oxygen, and nasogastric feeding as needed. There is limited or no evidence supporting the use of antibiotics, antivirals, bronchodilators, corticosteroids, hypertonic saline, or adrenaline nebulizers in the management of bronchiolitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with visible jaundice, fatigue, and intense itching. He has noticed that his stools float and that they have become pale, foul-smelling, and oily in appearance. He has no history of abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of Crohn's disease, which has been controlled with mesalazine. On examination, you notice yellowish pigmentation of the skin, sclerae, and mucous membranes. His abdomen is soft but can palpate a firm liver edge 5 cm below the costal margin. He also has numerous scratch marks covering his abdomen and upper thighs. His liver function tests are shown below:
Bilirubin 102 mmol (3-20)
ALT 235 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 1501 IU/L (20-140)
pANCA: positive
cANCA: negative
ANA: negative
SMA: negative
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:This woman is showing signs of obstructive jaundice along with a history of ulcerative colitis. The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is a condition that causes inflammation and blockage of the bile ducts, leading to progressive damage. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of cholangitis and the development of scar tissue in the bile ducts. In severe cases, it can lead to liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and even liver cancer. PSC is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, with more than 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis.
The underlying cause of PSC is believed to be autoimmune in nature. Around 80% of patients with PSC test positive for p-ANCA antibodies, which are associated with autoimmune diseases. Other antibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-smooth muscle antibodies may also be present, but they are only found in about one-third of PSC patients.
Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is a liver inflammation caused by a decrease in regulatory T-cells (Treg cells), leading to the production of autoantibodies against hepatocyte surface antigens. It primarily affects women (70%) between the ages of 15 and 40. The condition causes chronic and progressive hepatitis, often presenting in the later stages when the patient is severely unwell and jaundiced. Liver function tests typically show significantly elevated levels of transaminases (ALT and AST), often more than ten times the normal range. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels may be normal or slightly elevated. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive in approximately 80% of cases, while smooth muscle antibodies (SMA) are positive in about 70% of cases. Antimitochondrial antibodies are usually low or absent.
Primary biliary cirrhosis is another autoimmune liver disease that leads to the progressive destruction of the small bile ducts in the liver, primarily affecting the intralobular ducts. This results in cholestatic jaundice, liver fibrosis, and eventually cirrhosis. The condition is more common in women (90%) and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 65. Liver function tests show predominantly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), often before any symptoms or signs of the disease appear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of persistent vomiting, severe diarrhea, and loss of appetite. The patient reports feeling extremely weak. A peripheral cannula is inserted and blood samples are collected. The initial laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium (Na+): 134 mmol/L
Potassium (K+): 2.4 mmol/L
Urea (Ur): 8.2 mmol/L
Creatinine (Cr): 115 umol/L
Based on these findings, which of the following additional tests should be prioritized and requested?Your Answer: Chloride
Correct Answer: Magnesium
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia frequently occurs alongside hypokalaemia. It is important to note that potassium levels may not improve with supplementation until the magnesium deficiency is addressed.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old male patient is brought into the emergency department with suspected sepsis. It is decided to intubate the patient pending transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU). Your consultant requests you to prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation. What is the mechanism of action of suxamethonium?
Your Answer: Non-competitive agonist of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
Explanation:Suxamethonium, also called succinylcholine, is a type of drug used to block neuromuscular transmission. It acts as an agonist by binding to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Unlike acetylcholine, suxamethonium is not broken down by acetylcholinesterase, which means it stays bound to the receptors for a longer time, leading to prolonged inhibition of neuromuscular transmission. Eventually, suxamethonium is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 6
Correct
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A child with a known adrenal insufficiency presents with vomiting, excessive sweating, and abdominal discomfort. You suspect the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.
What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with adrenal insufficiency?Your Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:The following provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction), ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess), renal failure, or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).
Lastly, metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be a result of conditions like diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes in with bloody diarrhea that has been persisting for a few days. She has recently returned from a backpacking adventure across various Middle Eastern and African nations.
What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?Your Answer: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the world. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience TD. This condition is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Typically, individuals with TD also experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.
In most cases of gastroenteritis, there is no need for stool microscopy and culture. However, it is advisable to arrange these tests if the patient has recently returned from overseas travel, is severely ill, has prolonged symptoms, comes from an institution, or works as a food handler.
Bacteria are responsible for approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. The most common causative organism is Escherichia coli, with Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli being the strain most likely to cause bloody diarrhoea.
Infective causes of bloody diarrhoea include Campylobacter jejuni, Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a tremor and difficulty with movement. After being referred to a specialist, he is diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Currently, he is in the early stages of the condition.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely to be present as well?Your Answer: Orthostatic hypotension
Correct Answer: Cogwheel rigidity
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:
– Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
– Bradykinesia (slow movement)
– Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
– Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)Other commonly observed clinical features include:
– Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
– Loss of facial expression
– Monotonous, slurred speech
– Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
– Increased salivation and dribbling
– Difficulty with fine movementsInitially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:
– Postural instability
– Cognitive impairment
– Orthostatic hypotensionAlthough PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a recent nosebleed. The bleeding was minor and has now ceased.
Which ONE of the following arteries is not involved in Kiesselbach’s plexus?Your Answer: Posterior ethmoidal artery
Explanation:Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is located in the front and lower part of the nasal septum. It is the most common site of bleeding in cases of anterior epistaxis. This plexus is formed by the convergence of four arteries: the anterior ethmoidal artery, the sphenopalatine artery, the greater palatine artery, and the septal branch of the superior labial artery. It is important to note that while the posterior ethmoidal artery supplies the septum of the nose, it does not contribute to Kiesselbach’s plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 48 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. She reports experiencing brief episodes of palpitations over the past week, which typically resolve on their own after 5-10 minutes. However, today's episode has been ongoing for 30 minutes. The patient denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
Pulse: 120 bpm
Respiration rate: 17 bpm
Temperature: 36.5ºC
Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Administer 80 mg sotalol
Correct Answer: Administer 50 mg atenolol
Explanation:When managing newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation, a rate control strategy is often used. In this approach, beta blockers are typically the first line of treatment. However, sotalol is not recommended, and instead, other beta blockers like atenolol, acebutolol, metoprolol, nadolol, oxprenolol, and propranolol are preferred. Among these options, atenolol is commonly chosen in NHS trusts due to its cost-effectiveness.
For patients with signs of hemodynamic instability or adverse features, rhythm control (cardioversion) may be considered if they present within 48 hours of likely onset. However, in the case of this patient, their symptoms started a week ago, and there are no indications of hemodynamic instability or adverse features.
Digoxin monotherapy is typically reserved for individuals who have limited physical activity or are unable to take other first-line rate control medications due to other health conditions or contraindications.
Further Reading:
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.
AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.
Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.
Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.
Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest and back. She recently returned from her vacation in Ibiza and the areas have become more noticeable after sun exposure. What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?
Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo (Nizoral)
Explanation:Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a common skin condition caused by an infection with the yeasts Malassezia furfur and Malassezia globosa. It typically presents as multiple patches of altered pigmentation, primarily on the trunk. In individuals with fair skin, these patches are usually darker in color, while in those with darker skin or a tan, they may appear lighter (known as pityriasis versicolor alba). It is not uncommon for the rash to cause itching.
The recommended treatment for pityriasis versicolor involves the use of antifungal agents. One particularly effective option is ketoconazole shampoo, which is sold under the brand name Nizoral. To use this shampoo, it should be applied to the affected areas and left on for approximately five minutes before being rinsed off. This process should be repeated daily for a total of five days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
What dose of IV lorazepam is recommended for the treatment of the convulsing child?Your Answer: 0.5 mg/kg
Correct Answer: 0.1 mg/kg
Explanation:The recommended dosage of intravenous lorazepam for treating a child experiencing seizures is 0.1 mg per kilogram of body weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. During the history-taking, the patient reveals a recent weight loss of approximately 10 kg over the past 6 months and the presence of hand tremors. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results confirm hyperthyroidism. What is the predominant cause of thyrotoxicosis in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma is an uncommon cause of hyperthyroidism in the United Kingdom, accounting for only a small number of cases.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female is brought into the emergency department in a comatose state. After initial investigations, it is determined that mechanical ventilation should be initiated. What is a characteristic of a lung protective ventilation approach?
Your Answer: Utilise humidification chamber on ventilator
Correct Answer: Permissible hypercapnia
Explanation:Lung protective ventilation is a strategy that involves using smaller amounts of air during each breath (low tidal volumes) and restricting the maximum pressure applied during inhalation (plateau pressure). This approach also allows for a certain level of increased carbon dioxide levels in the body (hypercapnia).
Further Reading:
Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.
CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.
The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.
In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.
Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a documented history of asthma arrives with severe difficulty breathing and wheezing. After initial assessment, it is determined that she is experiencing a life-threatening asthma attack, and she is immediately transferred to the resuscitation area. An arterial blood gas is obtained to aid in her treatment.
What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate as a result of this life-threatening asthma episode?Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:The following list provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. It can also occur due to pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.
Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can occur due to lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). It can also be a result of renal failure or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Your supervisor requests you to arrange a training session for the new medical interns on diabetes mellitus and hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: The correct dose of glucagon for treating an adult with hypoglycaemia is 500 microgram
Correct Answer: Glucose levels should be checked 10-15 minutes after administering glucagon
Explanation:After administering any treatment for hypoglycemia, it is important to re-check glucose levels within 10-15 minutes. This allows for a reassessment of the effectiveness of the treatment and the possibility of administering additional treatment if needed. Obesity is a significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes, while most individuals with type 1 diabetes have a body mass index (BMI) below 25 kg/m2. It is crucial to provide carbohydrates promptly after treating hypoglycemia. The correct dose of glucagon for treating hypoglycemia in adults is 1 mg, and the same dose can be used for children aged 9 and above who weigh more than 25kg. HbA1c results between 42 and 47 indicate pre-diabetes.
Further Reading:
Diabetes Mellitus:
– Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
– Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
– Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
– Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.Hypoglycemia:
– Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
– Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
– Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
– Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
– Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
– Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
– Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
– Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
– If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and spreading to the groin. Her urine test shows blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and the diagnosis is ureteric colic. The patient has a history of asthma and cannot take NSAIDs.
According to the current NICE guidelines, what is the recommended analgesic for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous paracetamol
Explanation:Renal colic, also known as ureteric colic, refers to a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of a urinary tract stone.
The main symptoms of renal or ureteric colic include severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the groin or genital area in men, or to the labia in women. The pain comes and goes in spasms, lasting for minutes to hours, with periods of no pain or a dull ache. Nausea, vomiting, and the presence of blood in the urine are often accompanying symptoms.
People experiencing renal or ureteric colic are usually restless and unable to find relief by lying still, which helps to distinguish this condition from peritonitis. They may have a history of previous episodes and may also present with fever and sweating if there is an associated urinary infection. Some individuals may complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and the bladder, as the stone irritates the detrusor muscle.
In terms of pain management, the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which can be administered through various routes. If NSAIDs are contraindicated or not providing sufficient pain relief, intravenous paracetamol can be offered as an alternative. Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are contraindicated or not effective in relieving pain. Antispasmodics should not be given to individuals with suspected renal colic.
For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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A patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating large amounts. She also experiences extreme fatigue. A diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is suspected, and a fasting blood glucose sample is scheduled.
What is the current WHO threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus using a fasting blood sample in this case?Your Answer: 7 mmol/l
Explanation:According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), the following criteria are used to diagnose diabetes mellitus:
– A random venous plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l.
– A fasting plasma glucose concentration that is higher than 7.0 mmol/l.
– A two-hour plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l, measured two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
– An HbA1c level that is greater than 48 mmol/mol (equivalent to 6.5%).These guidelines provide specific thresholds for diagnosing diabetes mellitus based on various glucose measurements and HbA1c levels. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these criteria when evaluating individuals for diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, ascites, and worsening hepatic encephalopathy. The doctor suspects spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which ONE statement is correct regarding this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Approximately 10% of patients present with fever
Correct Answer: Patients should be administered broad-spectrum antibiotics
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of cases are seen in patients with severe liver disease. In any given year, around 30% of patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen will develop SBP.
SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.
Common clinical features of SBP include fever (80% of cases), abdominal pain (70% of cases), worsening or unexplained confusion due to liver dysfunction, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and bowel obstruction.
There are several factors that increase the risk of developing SBP, including severe liver disease (Child-Pugh class C), gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, excessive growth of bacteria in the intestines, presence of indwelling lines such as central venous catheters or urinary catheters, previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the fluid buildup in the abdomen.
To diagnose SBP, a procedure called abdominal paracentesis is performed to collect fluid from the abdomen. The following findings on fluid analysis strongly suggest SBP: total white blood cell count in the fluid greater than 500 cells/µL, total neutrophil count in the fluid greater than 250 cells/µL, lactate level in the fluid higher than 25 mg/dL, pH of the fluid below 7.35, and presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.
Patients with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred antibiotic is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administration of intravenous albumin has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney failure and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Following the case of a 45 year old male who was treated in the resuscitation bay for hypovolaemic shock following a secondary post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage, your consultant requests you to prepare a teaching session for the junior doctors on the topic.
Concerning secondary post-tonsillectomy bleeding, at what age does this usually occur?Your Answer: 12-24 hours post procedure
Correct Answer: 5-10 days post procedure
Explanation:Secondary post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage commonly happens between 5 to 10 days after the procedure. This type of bleeding is usually caused by the shedding of the eschar, injury from eating solid foods, infection in the tonsil bed, use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) after surgery, or unknown reasons.
Further Reading:
Tonsillectomy is a common procedure performed by ENT surgeons in the UK, with over 50,000 surgeries performed each year. While it is considered routine, there are risks of serious complications, including post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Approximately 5% of patients experience bleeding after the procedure, with most cases being self-limiting. However, severe bleeding can lead to hypovolemia and airway obstruction from clots, which can be life-threatening.
Post-tonsillectomy bleeding can be classified as primary (reactive) or secondary (delayed). Primary bleeding occurs within 24 hours of the procedure, while secondary bleeding occurs more than 24 hours post-procedure. Secondary bleeding is often caused by factors such as sloughing of eschar, trauma from solid food ingestion, tonsil bed infection, postoperative NSAID usage, or unknown causes.
Patients may present with symptoms such as vomiting blood, coughing up blood, tasting blood in the throat, finding blood on pillows or bed sheets, or excessive swallowing (especially in children). It is important for clinicians to assess the severity of blood loss, although it can be challenging to accurately estimate in children.
The ABCDE approach should be used to assess patients, with a focus on airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and evidence of bleeding. Clinicians may use a head torch to identify any bleeding points, which may be actively bleeding or appear as fresh red clots. It is important to note that the tonsillar fossa may appear white or yellow, which is a normal postoperative finding.
Investigations such as a full blood count, coagulation profile, group and save, and venous blood gas may be performed to assess the patient’s condition. Senior support from ENT or anesthesiology should be called if there is active bleeding.
Management of post-tonsillectomy bleeding includes positioning the patient upright and keeping them calm, establishing intravenous access, administering fluids and blood products as needed, and administering tranexamic acid to stop bleeding. Bleeding points may require gentle suction removal of fresh clots, and topical medications such as Co-phenylcaine spray or topical adrenaline may be applied to the oropharynx. All patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeding should be assessed by ENT and observed for a prolonged period, typically 12-24 hours.
If bleeding remains uncontrolled, the patient should be kept nil by mouth in preparation for surgery, and early intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 21
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she discovered in her father's bag.
Which of the following symptoms of ibuprofen overdose is more frequently observed in children compared to adults?Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Hyperpyrexia and hypoglycemia are more frequently observed in children than in adults due to salicylate poisoning. Both adults and children may experience common clinical manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, deafness, sweating, dehydration, hyperventilation, and cutaneous flushing. However, it is important to note that xanthopsia is associated with digoxin toxicity, not salicylate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 4 year old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that the patient started vomiting yesterday and has had multiple episodes of diarrhea since then. The patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The parents mention that there has been no recent travel and that the patient's immunizations are up to date. On examination, the patient has dry lips and buccal mucosa. The abdomen is soft, but the child becomes irritable when the abdomen is palpated. The peripheries are warm with a capillary refill time of 2.5 seconds. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Pulse: 146 bpm
Respiration rate: 32 bpm
Temperature: 37.9ºC
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Correct Answer: Viral gastroenteritis
Explanation:Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for the 4-year-old female patient is viral gastroenteritis. This is supported by the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea, as well as the fact that the patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The absence of recent travel and up-to-date immunizations also suggest that this is a viral rather than a bacterial infection.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 23
Correct
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A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a 24 hour history of vomiting and becoming increasingly fatigued. Tests confirm diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Intravenous fluid is being administered. You are requested to prescribe insulin. What is the most suitable insulin regimen?
Your Answer: IV insulin infusion at 0.05 units/kg/hour
Explanation:To treat DKA, the girl is receiving intravenous fluids to rehydrate her. Additionally, insulin needs to be prescribed to help regulate her blood sugar levels.
The most suitable insulin regimen in this case would be an IV insulin infusion at 0.05 units/kg/hour. This means that the insulin will be administered through an intravenous line at a rate of 0.05 units per kilogram of the girl’s body weight per hour. This dosage is appropriate for managing DKA and will help to lower her blood sugar levels effectively.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with short episodes of vertigo that worsen in the morning and are triggered by head movement. You suspect a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
Which straightforward bedside test can be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: The Dix-Hallpike test
Explanation:The Dix-Hallpike test is a straightforward examination that can be utilized to verify the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
To conduct the Dix-Hallpike test, the patient is swiftly brought down to a supine position with the neck extended by the clinician executing the maneuver. The test yields a positive result if the patient experiences a recurrence of their vertigo symptoms and the clinician performing the test observes nystagmus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower abdominal pain and a strong urge to urinate but an inability to do so. Upon examination, the patient's bladder is easily palpable and a diagnosis of acute urinary retention is made. To determine if any medications may be contributing to the condition, you inquire about the patient's drug history. Which of the following drug classes is NOT known to cause urinary retention?
Your Answer: Opioids
Correct Answer: 5α-reductase inhibitors
Explanation:Urinary retention can be caused by various drug classes. One such class is 5α-reductase inhibitors like finasteride, which are prescribed to alleviate obstructive symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate. Some commonly known drugs that can lead to urinary retention include alcohol, anticholinergics, decongestants (such as phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine), disopyramide, antihistamines (like diphenhydramine and phenergan), and amphetamines.
Further Reading:
Urinary retention is the inability to completely or partially empty the bladder. It is commonly seen in elderly males with prostate enlargement and acute retention. Symptoms of acute urinary retention include the inability to void, inability to empty the bladder, overflow incontinence, and suprapubic discomfort. Chronic urinary retention, on the other hand, is typically painless but can lead to complications such as hydronephrosis and renal impairment.
There are various causes of urinary retention, including anatomical factors such as urethral stricture, bladder neck contracture, and prostate enlargement. Functional causes can include neurogenic bladder, neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis and Parkinson’s, and spinal cord injury. Certain drugs can also contribute to urinary retention, such as anticholinergics, opioids, and tricyclic antidepressants. In female patients, specific causes like organ prolapse, pelvic mass, and gravid uterus should be considered.
The pathophysiology of acute urinary retention can involve factors like increased resistance to flow, detrusor muscle dysfunction, bladder overdistension, and drugs that affect bladder tone. The primary management intervention for acute urinary retention is the insertion of a urinary catheter. If a catheter cannot be passed through the urethra, a suprapubic catheter can be inserted. Post-catheterization residual volume should be measured, and renal function should be assessed through U&Es and urine culture. Further evaluation and follow-up with a urologist are typically arranged, and additional tests like ultrasound may be performed if necessary. It is important to note that PSA testing is often deferred for at least two weeks after catheter insertion and female patients with retention should also be referred to urology for investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?Your Answer: Thought broadcast
Correct Answer: Thought echo
Explanation:Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You assess a patient with nausea, vomiting, restlessness, and palpitations. She is on theophylline for the treatment of her COPD. You suspect toxicity and order blood tests for evaluation.
What is the target range for theophylline levels?Your Answer: 30-40 mg/L
Correct Answer: 10-20 mg/L
Explanation:The therapeutic range for theophylline is quite limited, ranging from 10 to 20 micrograms per milliliter (10-20 mg/L). It is important to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment as it can provide valuable information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 28
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion due to ongoing vaginal bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 5 mg/dL. Shortly after starting the transfusion, she experiences discomfort and a burning sensation at the site of her cannula. She also reports feeling nauseous, experiencing intense back pain, and having a sense of impending disaster. Her temperature is measured and is found to be 38.9°C.
What is the probable cause of this transfusion reaction?Your Answer: ABO incompatibility
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion usage, errors and adverse reactions still occur.
One serious complication is acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, which happen when incompatible red cells are transfused and react with the patient’s own antibodies. This usually occurs due to human error, such as mislabelling sample tubes or request forms. Symptoms of this reaction include a feeling of impending doom, fever, chills, pain and warmth at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and back, joint, and chest pain. Immediate action should be taken to stop the transfusion, replace the donor blood with normal saline or another suitable crystalloid, and check the blood to confirm the intended recipient. IV diuretics may be administered to increase renal blood flow, and urine output should be maintained.
Another common complication is febrile transfusion reaction, which presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise. This reaction is usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in the transfused blood components. Supportive treatment is typically sufficient, and paracetamol can be helpful.
Allergic reactions can also occur, usually due to foreign plasma proteins or anti-IgA. These reactions often present with urticaria, pruritus, and hives, and in severe cases, laryngeal edema or bronchospasm may occur. Symptomatic treatment with antihistamines is usually enough, and there is usually no need to stop the transfusion. However, if anaphylaxis occurs, the transfusion should be stopped, and the patient should be administered adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a severe complication characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion. It is associated with antibodies in the donor blood reacting with recipient leukocyte antigens. This is the most common cause of death related to transfusion reactions. Treatment involves stopping the transfusion, administering oxygen, and providing aggressive respiratory support in approximately 75% of patients. Diuretic usage should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Correct
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A patient arrives at the emergency department with confusion and abdominal pain. They have a previous diagnosis of Addison's disease but have recently run out of their steroid medication. You suspect the patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis.
Which ONE clinical feature is NOT typically associated with an Addisonian crisis?Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia
Explanation:An Addisonian crisis is characterized by several distinct features. These include experiencing pain in the legs and abdomen, as well as symptoms of vomiting and dehydration. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is also commonly observed during an Addisonian crisis. Confusion and psychosis may also occur, along with the presence of a fever. In some cases, convulsions may be present as well. Additionally, individuals experiencing an Addisonian crisis may also exhibit hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, eosinophilia, and metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Correct
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A parent brings their 10 year old child into the emergency department as they have been feeling sick and have now developed a rash. You diagnose chickenpox. The mother asks about school exclusion.
What is the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer: Exclude for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over
Explanation:Individuals who have chickenpox should refrain from coming into contact with others for a minimum of 5 days starting from when the rash first appears and continuing until all blisters have formed a crust.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.
Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.
Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.
Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.
Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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