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Question 1
Correct
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All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made. Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?
Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvisThe appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.
The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?
Your Answer: Stratification
Correct Answer: Randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.
For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Correct
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The following are results of some pulmonary function tests: (Measurement - Predicted result - Test result). Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps): 3.21, - 1.94. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps): 2.77, 1.82. FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps): 81.9, 93.5. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second): 6.55, 3.62. Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute): 103, 87.1 Which statement applies to the results?
Your Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (V1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35%This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. V1/FVC ratio is 93.5%.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.
The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of 'restriction' from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 5
Correct
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Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?
Your Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.
Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow when occluded surgically?
Your Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The portal vein arises from the splenic and mesenteric veins, and is the biggest vessel in the portal venous system, accounting for about 75% of the hepatic blood flow.
It is responsible for draining blood from parts of the gastrointestinal system, the spleen, the pancreas and the gallbladder into the liver.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Arrythmias can develop from abnormal conduction, which may be as a result of impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries which causes hypoxia. Phase 0 depolarisation can be slowed, and this leads to slower conduction speeds. Rapid depolarisation in the cardiac action potential is caused by which movement of ions?
Your Answer: Sodium influx
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man, visits his general practitioner complaining of a lump in his groin. He explains he is otherwise well and reports no other symptoms. The lump is examined and is found to be soft, and can be reduced without causing the patient pain. The GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia. To determine the nature of the hernia, the GP reduced the lump and applies pressure on the deep inguinal ring. The deep inguinal ring has what anatomical landmark?
Your Answer: Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: Superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring lies approximately 1.5-2cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle, next to the epigastric vessels.
It is an important point in determining the nature of an inguinal hernia (direct or indirect). The patient is asked to cough after the hernia is reduced, with pressure applied to the deep inguinal ring. The hernia reappearing indicates it is direct, moving through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
Inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle is the normal anatomical position of the neck of a femoral hernia.
Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle is the site of the superficial inguinal ring, and the normal anatomical position of the neck of an inguinal hernia.
The mid-inguinal point is located halways between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. It is the surface marking for taking the femoral pulse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?
Your Answer: A metre is the unit of length
Explanation:The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.
There are seven base units, which are:
Metre (m): a unit of length
Second (s): a unit of time
Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
Mole (mol): a unit of substance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 11
Correct
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A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine. Which of the following best explains the situation above?
Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis
Explanation:When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.
Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.
Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.
Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.
Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic. If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?
Your Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
‰¤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ‰¤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ‰¤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 66-year-old man, present to the emergency department with dyspepsia. On history taking, he admits to being a heavy smoker, and on testing is noted to be positive for a helicobacter pylori infection. A few evenings later, he suffers from haematemesis and collapses. What vessel is most likely to be involved?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The most likely of the differential diagnosis in this case is a duodenal ulcer located on the posterior abdominal wall.
These can cause an erosion of the abdominal wall, eventually affecting the gastroduodenal artery and resulting in major bleeding and haematemesis.
Gastroduodenal artery supplies the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head (via the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers. On clinical examination: Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air, Respiratory rate: 22 per minute, Heart rate: 100 beats per minute, Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg, Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius. On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted. Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?
Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz
Explanation:The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.
The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.
Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs. He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?
Your Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Agitation or restlessness, Rapid heart rate, high Blood Pressure, loss of muscle coordination, or twitching muscles is common symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome.
Tramadol should not be given to patients taking selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) therapy because of the risk of serotonin syndrome
Tramadol is a centrally acting analgesic that is an atypical opioid that relieves pain by opioids as well as additional mechanisms. Its affinity for µ opioid receptor is low, while that for κ and δ is very low. Unlike other opioids, it inhibits the reuptake of Noradrenaline (NA) and 5- Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), increases 5-HT release, and thus activates monoaminergic spinal inhibition of pain.
Its analgesic action is only partially reversed by the opioid antagonist naloxone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Dial thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature
Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 18
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment. As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs). Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.
Your Answer: 1400 mL/minute
Explanation:Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.
It is calculated mathematically by:
VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute
where,
1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 19
Correct
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A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair. What is true regarding the mitral valve?
Your Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound
Explanation:The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.
The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricleThe anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored. The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows: Time (hours): 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, Concentration (mcg/mL) 100, 71, 50, 35.5, 25. From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?
Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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