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Question 1
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central abdominal pain. The pain started very suddenly, is described as severe and radiates through to his back. He has a past medical history of hypertension. On examination, the patient looks unwell, with some bruising around his flanks.
Investigation Result Normal value
Heart rate (HR) 118 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 98/62 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
Respiratory rate (RR) 28 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Sats 95% on air 94–98%
Temperature 36 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
There is generalised tenderness upon palpation of the abdomen.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured AAA
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain and Bruising
When a patient presents with abdominal pain and bruising, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In this case, a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is the most likely explanation, given the patient’s history and examination findings. This is a serious condition with high mortality, and urgent surgical intervention is required if AAA is suspected. To avoid further complications, blood pressure should be maintained at less than 100 mmHg.
Other potential diagnoses that should be ruled out include pancreatitis, renal artery stenosis, appendicitis, and aortic dissection. Pancreatitis can also cause abdominal pain and bruising, but the patient’s symptoms and signs suggest AAA as the primary concern. Renal artery stenosis typically presents differently and is less likely in this case. Appendicitis can cause central abdominal pain, but it is not the most likely explanation here. Aortic dissection can cause pain radiating to the back, but the location and severity of the pain in this patient do not fit with that diagnosis. Overall, prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment and management of abdominal pain and bruising.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of a burning sensation in her legs. She reports that her legs are very sore and uncomfortable. Upon examination, there is a hard, tender, bulging of veins in both her thighs and the calf region, with hyperpigmentation and eczema of both the legs and an ulcer over the medial malleolus. What would prevent radiofrequency ablation from being performed as an initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Hard painful veins
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Interventional Treatment for Varicose Veins and Associated Complications
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, interventional treatment for varicose veins during pregnancy is not recommended. However, compression hosiery can be used to alleviate leg swelling symptoms.
Eczema of the lower limbs in varicose veins may indicate chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.
Hard, painful veins are a sign of superficial venous thrombosis, a complication of varicose veins. Immediate intervention is required if there is evidence of this condition.
Hyperpigmentation of the lower limbs in varicose veins also suggests chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, radiofrequency ablation is indicated.
An ulcer over the medial malleolus, particularly a chronic, non-healing ulcer in varicose veins, is a strong indication of chronic venous insufficiency. If eczema, non-healing leg ulcers, or hyperpigmentation are present, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is brought to Accident and Emergency by ambulance, complaining of abdominal pain. He says the pain is 8/10 in strength, radiates to the groin, iliac fossae and back and began suddenly half an hour ago. He cannot identify anything that prompted the pain and has not yet eaten today. He says he also feels dizzy and faint. The man has had two stents after a cardiac arrest in 2011. He has hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia. He smokes 35 cigarettes a day but does not consume alcohol. On examination, the patient looks grey. His blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, heart rate 126 bpm, respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute and temperature 37.4 °C. He has widespread abdominal tenderness on light palpation. You cannot palpate any masses.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, Pancreatitis, Pyelonephritis, Myocardial Infarction, and Acute Cholecystitis
Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history to make an accurate diagnosis. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including hypertension, smoking, age, and being male. The sudden onset of pain radiating to the groin, back, and iliac fossae is typical of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, which can cause shock and requires immediate surgical intervention.
Pancreatitis is another possible cause of the patient’s pain, with pain radiating to the back and often accompanied by fever and jaundice. However, the patient has not eaten recently and does not drink alcohol, which are common triggers for gallstone-induced and alcohol-induced pancreatitis.
Pyelonephritis, or a kidney infection, can also cause back pain and septic shock, but the sudden onset of pain is less typical. A patient with severe pyelonephritis would also be expected to have a fever.
Although the patient has multiple cardiac risk factors, his pain is not typical of a myocardial infarction, or heart attack. Myocardial infarction can cause abdominal pain, but it is unlikely to radiate to the back and groin.
Acute cholecystitis, or inflammation of the gallbladder, typically causes right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and fever, which are not present in this patient.
In summary, the patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm as the most likely cause of his abdominal pain, but other conditions such as pancreatitis and pyelonephritis should also be considered. A thorough evaluation and prompt intervention are necessary to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and was diagnosed with an AAA measuring 4.2 cm at its widest diameter. What would be the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Three-monthly monitoring with ultrasound scanning
Correct Answer: Annual monitoring with ultrasound scanning
Explanation:Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that affects men aged 65 and over, putting them at risk of developing an enlarged aorta. To manage this condition, different approaches are taken depending on the size of the aneurysm.
Annual Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
Men aged 65 and over are offered screening via ultrasound scanning during the year they turn 65. Patients diagnosed with a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm in diameter) are invited to return annually for monitoring. They are also given lifestyle advice, including smoking cessation, diet, and exercise.Discharge with Reassurance
Patients with a normal result (measurement of <3 cm in diameter) are discharged and do not require further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to progress to a dangerous extent. Three-Monthly Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
Patients with a medium-sized AAA (4.5-5.4 cm in diameter) are offered three-monthly ultrasound scanning.Referral to a Specialist Surgeon within Two Weeks for Further Assessment
Patients with a large AAA (5.5 cm or more in diameter) are referred to a specialist surgeon to be seen within two weeks to discuss treatment options. Surgical repair is usually advised, as long as there are no contraindications to surgery.Immediate Admission under a Surgical Team for Surgical Repair
Emergency repair is not indicated for an aneurysm measuring 4.2 cm. Emergency repair is usually only indicated if a patient has a leaking or ruptured aortic aneurysm.Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) According to Size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic, complaining of severe pain in both legs, even at rest. On examination, he had chronic ulceration of his toes.
Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?Your Answer: Buerger’s disease
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. This disease affects medium-sized and small arteries, particularly the tibial and radial arteries, and can extend to veins and nerves of the extremities. It is most commonly seen in heavy cigarette-smoking men, but there has been an increase in cases among women due to changing smoking trends. The disease typically begins before the age of 35 and causes severe pain, even at rest, due to neural involvement. Chronic ulcerations and gangrene can occur as later complications. Abstinence from smoking in the early stages can prevent further attacks. Other possible conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Kawasaki’s disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Takayasu’s arthritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?Your Answer: An increase of 0.5–1 cm per year
Correct Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year
Explanation:Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.
An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.
For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.
Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman, a smoker, presents to the Emergency Department at 28 weeks’ gestation with a swollen left lower leg. She reported experiencing some pain and swelling in both legs in the past week, but woke up this morning with the left leg being tender and red.
Her medical history is unremarkable, but she is feeling short of breath and her vital signs are stable.
Upon examination, there is bilateral lower limb swelling, with the left side being significantly more swollen and painful upon palpation. The skin is also warm to the touch. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows no abnormalities.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Correct Answer: Commence low-molecular-weight heparin treatment
Explanation:Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, a swollen, erythematosus, and painful leg is treated as a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) until proven otherwise. A risk assessment should be performed at the booking visit to identify factors that increase the likelihood of venous thromboembolism (VTE). If a pregnant patient presents with symptoms suspicious of a DVT, treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin should be administered immediately, provided there are no contraindications. Treatment should not be delayed until investigations are performed, but if a Doppler scan of the deep veins in the legs precludes the diagnosis of DVT, treatment can be discontinued.
If investigations confirm DVT, treatment should continue throughout pregnancy and for 6 weeks postpartum, with a total of at least 3 months of treatment. Contraindications to low-molecular-weight heparin include heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, allergy, haemorrhagic disorders, recent cerebral haemorrhage, peptic ulceration, and active bleeding. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the standard method for diagnosing a pulmonary embolus, but due to the risk of radiation to the fetus, a ventilation-perfusion scan is used as first-line in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy, but may be considered as an alternative to heparin in cases where heparin is contraindicated and a VTE is diagnosed, following discussion with the haematology team.
If a leg Doppler confirms a DVT, no further investigation is required, and the patient can continue on treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin. However, if a Doppler shows no evidence of DVT, a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out a cause of shortness of breath such as pneumonia. If the chest X-ray is negative, a ventilation-perfusion scan should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolus. Ultrasound Doppler is the gold standard for diagnosing DVT and is essential in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 8
Correct
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An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his left leg, below the knee. This pain came on suddenly an hour ago, after walking to his bathroom. He knows that he gets claudication on walking over 250 metres, and is unsure if this pain is the same. His medical history includes hypertension, controlled with amlodipine 5 mg od. On examination, his left leg below the knee is pale, cold and numb, with absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, but present pulses on his right leg.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Embolectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Limb Ischaemia: Embolectomy and Thrombolysis
Acute limb ischaemia can be caused by either an embolus or a thrombosis. The diagnosis is clinical and can be remembered using the 6Ps: Pale, Pulseless, Paraesthesia, Pain, Paralysis, and Perishingly cold. In the case of an embolic cause, urgent embolectomy using a Fogarty catheter to retrieve the clot is the appropriate treatment. Post-embolectomy, patients should be anticoagulated with IV heparin and then switched over to warfarin.
Thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment if the ischaemia is caused by a thrombosis. However, based on the clinical history, if the patient has an embolic cause, thrombolysis is not recommended. Thrombosis tends to present over hours to days, with a history of claudication and is less severe as collateral blood supply develops. Contralateral pulses tend to be absent.
Amputation below the right knee is an effective treatment but should only be considered by experienced consultants as it will have serious long-term implications for patients. Because the man has presented relatively quickly, it is unlikely that amputation will be required.
High dose warfarin is not a treatment for acute limb ischaemia. The clot needs to be removed.
Angiography is not performed when complete occlusion is suggested by the clinical picture, as it introduces a delay in revascularisation. In an incomplete occlusion, angiography is used to place stents to open the vessels.
In summary, the appropriate treatment for acute limb ischaemia caused by an embolus is embolectomy, while thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment for ischaemia caused by a thrombosis. Amputation should only be considered as a last resort, and high dose warfarin is not a treatment option. Angiography and stenting are only used in cases of incomplete occlusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 9
Correct
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As an FY2 doctor in the Emergency Department, you are attending to a patient who is experiencing severe abdominal pain. The patient is unable to localise the pain, and reports feeling faint. Upon examination, you observe a pulsatile expansile mass above their umbilicus, along with generalised abdominal tenderness. The patient's blood pressure is 95/51 mmHg, and their pulse is 114 bpm. While awaiting a surgical review, the patient is receiving fluid resuscitation for their low blood pressure. In this scenario, which of the following would provide the most useful information for planning the patient's management?
Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Imaging Options for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Clinical diagnosis may be possible based on the presence of a pulsatile expansile mass and severe shock, but a computerised tomography (CT) scan is needed to assess the dimensions and anatomical relations of the aneurysm. This information is crucial in determining the most suitable type of surgical repair, such as endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR).
X-rays are not useful for visualising soft tissue structures, while intravenous arteriograms are completely inappropriate as the contrast can cause peritonitis and worsen the patient’s condition. Ultrasound scans are good for confirming suspected AAAs in stable patients, but they cannot provide accurate information for surgical planning.
In summary, a CT scan is the most appropriate imaging option for diagnosing and planning treatment for AAA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which his general practitioner could find no reason. After your assessment, you organise an ultrasound scan of the abdomen to rule out any pathology and incidentally find out that the patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
Which statement best applies to an AAA?Your Answer: Patients presenting with a leak should be taken to theatre immediately without assessment by computed tomography (CT) scan
Correct Answer: Surveillance is carried out with CT scanning or ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Diagnosis, Monitoring, and Treatment
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious medical condition that require careful monitoring and prompt treatment. Diagnosis is typically done through ultrasound screening, with men being invited for screening during their 65th year. Once an AAA is detected, monitoring is done through CT scanning or ultrasound, with the frequency of scans increasing as the aneurysm grows in size. If a leak is suspected, immediate surgical intervention is necessary, although a CT scan may be performed first to assess the extent of the leak. Surgery is typically done when the aneurysm reaches a diameter of 5.5 cm or greater, with repair options including open surgery with a synthetic graft or endovascular repair. Patients may present with central and upper abdominal pain radiating to their back, and misdiagnosis as renal colic can be fatal. Understanding the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of AAAs is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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