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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old asthmatic has been admitted to the hospital with a worsening wheeze...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old asthmatic has been admitted to the hospital with a worsening wheeze that has persisted for 24 hours. You are urgently called as the patient has become acutely short of breath despite receiving three sets of salbutamol nebulisers. The patient is now hypotensive and desaturating. Upon examination, you notice reduced air entry with a resonant percussion note in the left lung field and a trachea deviated to the right. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment for Evolving Pneumothorax

      This patient is showing clinical signs of a developing pneumothorax, which requires urgent treatment. While a tension pneumothorax is typically associated with a deviated trachea and hyper-resonance, these signs may not appear until later stages. It is possible that the patient has a simple pneumothorax, but given their hypotension, urgent needle decompression is necessary to treat a potential tension pneumothorax. In such cases, chest imaging should not be prioritized over immediate intervention. The procedure involves inserting a large bore needle in the second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line, followed by a chest drain.

      Pneumonia can often trigger asthma exacerbations, which can lead to severe chest sepsis and SIRS criteria evolving into severe sepsis. In such cases, ARDS may be the predominant clinical picture with wet lung fields. While massive pulmonary embolism can also cause desaturation and hypotension, there are no other apparent risk factors in this patient’s case. It is important to note that while acute asthma exacerbations can cause anxiety, the diagnosis of panic attacks should only be made after excluding other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is experiencing uncontrolled...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is experiencing uncontrolled tachycardia despite treatment with digoxin and bisoprolol, leading to acute left ventricular dysfunction. The patient has been prescribed amiodarone. What investigation must be done before starting amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function test

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can have adverse effects on thyroid function. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can occur as a result of amiodarone use. Clinical assessment alone may not be reliable in detecting these disorders, so the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends laboratory testing before treatment and every six months during therapy.

      It is important to note that amiodarone can cause an elevation in thyroxine (T4) levels, even in the absence of hyperthyroidism. This is due to the medication’s inhibition of the conversion of T4 to triiodothyronine (T3). Therefore, it is crucial to test for both thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T3 in addition to T4.

      In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also be hepatotoxic, meaning it can cause liver damage. If evidence of liver dysfunction develops, treatment with amiodarone should be discontinued. Regular monitoring and testing can help detect and manage these potential adverse effects of amiodarone therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

      Your Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man has been brought to the hospital after collapsing at his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been brought to the hospital after collapsing at his workplace. Upon examination, he is found to be in a comatose state without response to visual stimuli, but he does extend his limbs in response to painful stimuli and occasionally makes incomprehensible sounds. His blood pressure is 164/88 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 beats per minute, and he exhibits hyperreflexia on the left side with bilateral extensor plantar responses. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing critically ill patients. It helps determine the severity of a patient’s condition and has prognostic implications. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 to 15, with a lower score indicating a worse prognosis.

      The GCS score is determined by assigning points for each of the three categories. The highest score for eye opening is 4, for verbal response is 5, and for motor response is 6. A patient who is dead would still have a GCS score of 3. The lowest possible score is 3, which indicates no response in any of the categories.

      The GCS score is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them determine the level of care a patient needs. A lower score indicates a more severe injury or illness and may require more intensive treatment. The GCS score is also used to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to assess the effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 72 hour history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 72 hour history of lethargy, fever, and a sore throat. The nurse reports that his breathing is harsh and high pitched. His vital signs show a temperature of 39.4°C and an elevated respiratory and heart rate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial tracheitis

      Explanation:

      Addressing Stridor and Other Airway Sounds

      Added airway sounds, particularly stridor, should always be treated as a medical emergency. Stridor is a sign of a compromised upper airway and is heard predominantly on inspiration. It is important to note that stridor is not a diagnosis but a symptom, and the underlying cause must be identified urgently. The patient’s medical history is crucial in determining the correct diagnosis as all the causes listed above can present with stridor.

      In children, croup caused by the parainfluenza 1 virus is the most common reason for stridor. However, stridor in adults should prompt the clinician to consider other diagnoses. If the patient appears toxic with worsening lethargy, pyrexia, and overt deterioration of the upper airway, bacterial tracheitis is the most likely cause. Diphtheria can also cause stridor, but immunization programs have reduced its incidence in the western world.

      Laryngospasm is a common cause of stridor in adults, but the clinician must seek a relevant precipitant. Exposure to smoke and toxic fumes in the patient’s history should raise a high degree of suspicion and prompt the clinician to involve the anaesthetic teams in securing the patient’s airway. Foreign body aspiration and anaphylaxis are both life-threatening conditions that must be considered and excluded. The duration and onset of the stridor will be a key factor in determining the diagnosis. An abrupt onset with a history of eating nuts or chewing on a pen lid or plastic bead is often present in foreign body aspiration, while anaphylaxis may have a defined food precipitant and a more rapid onset than other conditions.

      Overall, addressing stridor and other airway sounds requires urgent attention and a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are the medical SHO in A and E. A 25-year-old female is...

    Correct

    • You are the medical SHO in A and E. A 25-year-old female is admitted in a distressed state and experiencing shortness of breath. She is finding it difficult to speak in complete sentences and is breathing rapidly. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 120 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 90%, and her peak expiratory flow rate is less than 50% of predicted. The emergency medical services have administered salbutamol 5 mg twice and provided face mask oxygen. An ABG test is pending. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg with oxygen

      Explanation:

      Management of Life-Threatening Asthma

      Patients with life-threatening asthma, characterized by saturations under 92% in air, require immediate administration of β2-agonists, preferably nebulizer with oxygen. Repeat doses should be given at 15-30 minute intervals, or continuous nebulization can be used if there is an inadequate response to bolus therapy. Nebulized ipratropium bromide should be added for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those with a poor initial response. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Steroids should be given as soon as possible, with a dose of 40-50 mg continued for five days or until recovery. Failure to respond to these treatments may warrant the use of intravenous magnesium sulfate and aminophylline, but only after discussion with senior colleagues. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life-threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is a suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or in cases of life-threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Attempting intubation prior to further therapy is not recommended, especially for those inexperienced in the technique, as there are other treatments that can be tried first before this step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out with her friends. According to her friends, she has been talking to herself about nonsensical things and appears agitated and restless. During the examination, it is noted that her reflexes are heightened and an electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ventricular ectopics. What type of substance abuse is suspected in this case?

      Your Answer: Ecstasy

      Explanation:

      Ecstasy Overdose

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA, is a drug that stimulates the central nervous system. It can cause increased alertness, euphoria, extroverted behavior, and rapid speech. People who take ecstasy may also experience a lack of desire to eat or sleep, tremors, dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension. However, more severe intoxication can lead to excitability, agitation, paranoid delusions, hallucinations, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. In some cases, convulsions, rhabdomyolysis, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias may also develop.

      Severe cases of MDMA poisoning can result in hyperthermia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, hyponatremia, and even hepatic damage. In rare cases, amphetamine poisoning may lead to intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage and acute cardiomyopathy, which can be fatal. Chronic amphetamine users may also experience hyperthyroxinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?

      Your Answer: Topical ethyl chloride

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department

      For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.

      The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.

      Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.

      In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man experiences a bout of memory loss. He had a moment...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man experiences a bout of memory loss. He had a moment of confusion three days prior, during which his wife guided him inside and offered him tea. Despite being conscious and able to converse with his wife, he wandered around the house in a confused state and repeatedly asked the same questions. After three hours, he suddenly returned to his normal state and had no memory of the incident. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Brief Overview

      Transient global amnesia is a rare condition that typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50. It is characterized by a temporary lack of blood flow to both hippocampi, resulting in a loss of memory function. Despite this, individuals retain their personal identity and cognitive abilities. The episode typically lasts less than 24 hours and is not associated with any long-term effects.

      In summary, transient global amnesia is a temporary condition that affects memory function due to a lack of blood flow to the hippocampi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend discovered her this morning after a night of drinking, but also mentions that she was upset about her recent breakup. Upon examination, she has a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15, a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils that react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and exaggerated reflexes with Downgoing plantar responses. Additionally, a palpable bladder is found during abdominal examination. What substance is she most likely to have taken?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment

      Anticholinergic overdose can be identified by symptoms such as drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Patients with anticholinergic overdose should be closely monitored for ventricular arrhythmias and seizures, which can be treated with phenytoin and lidocaine, respectively. Additionally, metabolic acidosis should be corrected with bicarbonate.

      Paracetamol overdose may not present with many symptoms or signs initially, but can later lead to fulminant hepatic failure. Opiates typically cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines usually only result in marked drowsiness. Ecstasy, on the other hand, often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, except in cases of severe hyponatremia associated with excessive water consumption.

      In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications. Other types of overdose may present with different symptoms and require different interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      40.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (7/10) 70%
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