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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old retired ship dockland worker presents to the Medical Outpatient Department with...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired ship dockland worker presents to the Medical Outpatient Department with a history of difficulty breathing, hoarse voice, weight loss and occasional night sweats. He also complains of difficulty in swallowing, although this happens very infrequently. He has also noticed that, in the past month, he has become easily tired when performing his daily activities.
      On examination, there is unilateral dullness to percussion at the right lung base, decreased breath sounds on the right side, asymmetrical chest wall expansion and scoliosis are observed. A chest X-ray demonstrates diffuse pleural thickening on the right side and decreased right lung volume. A positron emission tomography (PET) scan and video-assisted thoracoscopy (VAT) are performed to obtain the pleural biopsy, and a histopathological diagnosis is made.
      Which of the treatments could achieve the best possible outcome in this patient?

      Your Answer: Combination therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma

      Malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) is an aggressive tumor that arises from the mesothelial cells of the pleural cavity, pericardium, mediastinum, and tunica vaginalis. Treatment options for MPM include non-surgical (chemotherapy, radiotherapy), surgical (macroscopic complete resection or MCR), and combined therapies.

      Combination therapy, which includes systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, has been shown to prolong the relative survival time of MPM patients compared to chemotherapy alone. The choice of MCR procedure depends on the tumor characteristics, surgeon’s expertise, and local institutional protocols. Cisplatin plus pemetrexed is used in systemic chemotherapy for patients with unresectable tumors or those who do not qualify for curative surgery.

      Immunotherapeutic drugs, such as anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) antibodies like pembrolizumab and nivolumab, have shown promising results in a few randomized controlled trials. However, the first line of treatment for unresectable MPM is pemetrexed and platinum-based compounds.

      Radiotherapy poses technical challenges due to the limited ipsilateral side involvement of MPM and the potential for radiation toxicity. Prophylactic doses of radiation are used before systemic chemotherapy and surgery, and three-dimensional techniques like intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) can deliver effective radiation doses while sparing healthy tissues. However, exposure of the contralateral lung to radiation can lead to pneumonitis.

      In conclusion, a combination of therapies, including systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, can prolong the survival time of MPM patients. The choice of treatment depends on the tumor characteristics, patient selection, and institutional protocols. Immunotherapy and radiotherapy are also potential treatment options, but their use depends on the patient’s individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39-year-old male has been taking olanzapine for the last 3 years. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male has been taking olanzapine for the last 3 years. After experiencing an episode of tardive dyskinesia, he researched the potential side-effects of the medication. What is the most probable biochemical side-effect that this patient may experience?

      Your Answer: Hypoprolactineamia

      Correct Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics have been found to cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. Olanzapine, along with other antipsychotics, is known to primarily cause hyperlipidemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycemia, and weight gain. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists, leading to hyperprolactinemia as dopamine is a prolactin antagonist. However, they do not have any impact on parathyroid hormones or electrolytes.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behaviour before. He describes finding her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the GP. There is no personal or family history of psychiatric illness. The patient does not seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma. Which medication is most likely to be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a high-speed road traffic incident. He was ejected from the vehicle and sustained a severe head injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is E1 V1 M2. Other injuries include an unstable pelvic fracture (secured with a binder) and bruising to his anterior chest wall. His heart rate is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Additional history from a family member includes:
      Allergy – penicillin
      Past medical history – hypertension, high cholesterol
      Drug history – bisoprolol.
      Which one of the following would be the fluid of choice for supporting his blood pressure?

      Your Answer: l of Hartmann’s

      Correct Answer: Packed red blood cells (through a fluid warmer)

      Explanation:

      In cases of severe high-impact trauma, the patient may experience hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss. The most common causes of mortality following trauma are neurological injury and blood loss. In such cases, the DCR approach is used, which involves permissive hypotension and blood product-based resuscitation. Crystalloids should be avoided as they can increase haemodilution and impair coagulation and tissue perfusion. Instead, packed red blood cells should be used along with fresh frozen plasma to avoid dilutional coagulopathy. Tranexamic acid may also be used to aid haemostasis. Fluids should be warmed prior to infusion to prevent hypothermia, which is associated with worse patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports difficulty distinguishing between colors, central vision impairment, 'floaters', and tension-like headaches. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 20/50 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye. Ophthalmoscopy reveals a red spot on the macula surrounded by a ring of retinal epithelial pigment loss resembling a 'bull's eye'. The patient has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis, and is obese. She is currently taking metformin, methotrexate, and hydroxychloroquine. What is the most probable cause of her visual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, which is characterized by reduced color differentiation, reduced central visual acuity, and floaters. The typical appearance of bull’s eye maculopathy on ophthalmoscopy is also associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, hydroxychloroquine is the correct answer in this case.

      Diabetic retinopathy is an unlikely diagnosis as it is usually detected early through the diabetic eye screening program. It presents with similar symptoms to drug-induced retinopathy, such as floaters and blurred vision, and can cause reduced central vision if the macula is affected. However, the bull’s eye maculopathy described in this case is not typical of diabetic maculopathy.

      Central retinal artery occlusion is caused by a disruption of retinal blood supply and typically results in sudden vision loss. On ophthalmoscopy, a cherry-red fovea with retinal whitening is usually observed. Bilateral involvement is uncommon.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with headaches, vomiting, retro-orbital pain, pulsatile tinnitus, and visual disturbance, most commonly peripheral visual fields. Papilloedema is usually observed on ophthalmoscopy, which is not described in this case.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - According to the Mental Health Act (1983), which section should be used to...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Mental Health Act (1983), which section should be used to detain a teenage patient, already in hospital, who is suffering from acute psychosis and is attempting to leave the hospital against medical advice?

      Your Answer: Section 2

      Correct Answer: Section 5.2

      Explanation:

      Mental Health Act Sections and Their Purposes

      The Mental Health Act includes several sections that outline the circumstances under which a person can be detained for mental health treatment. These sections serve different purposes and have varying time limits for detention.

      Section 5.2 allows for the detention of a patient who is already in the hospital for up to 72 hours. Section 5.4 allows a senior nurse to detain a patient for up to 6 hours without a doctor present.

      Section 3 applies to patients with a known mental disorder who require detention for treatment. This section allows for admission for up to 6 months.

      Section 2 applies to patients with an uncertain diagnosis who require detention for assessment. This section allows for detention for no longer than 28 days.

      Section 135 is a police warrant that allows for the removal of a patient from private property to a place of safety.

      Section 136 allows for the removal of a person with a mental illness from the community to a place of safety for further assessment. This can be a special suite in Accident & Emergency, a local psychiatry hospital, or a police station if specific criteria are met.

      Understanding these sections of the Mental Health Act is important for ensuring that individuals receive appropriate care and treatment for their mental health needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of skin wheals. These...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of skin wheals. These wheels are often linked to migraines that she experiences occasionally before her menstrual cycle. She has a clean medical history, takes the progesterone-only pill, an over-the-counter multivitamin, and aspirin for pain relief as needed. She has no known allergies. What is the probable reason for her urticaria?

      Your Answer: Hormonal changes secondary to menstruation

      Correct Answer: Aspirin-induced urticaria

      Explanation:

      Urticaria, a skin reaction characterized by red patches and oedema caused by the release of vasoactive substances like histamine from mast cells, can be triggered by aspirin. This is a common cause of drug-induced urticaria, which is likely the case for the patient who experiences episodes alongside her migraines, for which she takes aspirin as an analgesic. Although aspirin is not as commonly used as an analgesic, it is still popularly used as an over-the-counter medication. While exercise-induced urticaria is a known phenomenon, it does not seem to be the case for this patient. Hormonal changes due to menstruation may cause migraines, but they are not typically associated with urticaria. Contraceptives can cause chronic urticaria, but it would not occur in a limited time frame once a month. The patient’s daily multivitamin intake is unlikely to be the cause of her sporadic urticaria episodes.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What would make the use of the unpaired t test inappropriate for comparing...

    Incorrect

    • What would make the use of the unpaired t test inappropriate for comparing the mean drug concentrations of two groups of subjects?

      Your Answer: Small sample size

      Correct Answer: Non-normal distribution of data

      Explanation:

      Limitations of the t test in statistical analysis

      The t test is a statistical tool used to compare the means of two groups of data. However, it can only be used for parametric data, which means that the data must be normally distributed. If the data is not normally distributed, then the t test cannot be used.

      Another limitation of the t test is that insufficient statistical power, which is a consequence of having too few subjects recruited, would not invalidate the results of the t test. However, it is probable that the results would not show any difference with too few subjects. This is because the statistical power of the test is directly related to the sample size. If the sample size is too small, then the test may not have enough power to detect a difference between the two groups.

      Despite this limitation, it is possible that if the differences between the two groups are large enough, then differences might still be seen, irrespective of prior power calculations. Therefore, it is important to consider the limitations of the t test when using it for statistical analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has been running a fever for the past 5 days and has been acting differently. Despite giving her paracetamol, the fever has not subsided.
      During the examination, the girl presents with cracked, bright red lips, conjunctival injection, palpable lymph nodes in the cervical area, and redness on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet.
      What medication should be given based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease requires the use of high-dose aspirin, despite it being generally not recommended for children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. This is because the child presents with a persistent fever lasting more than 5 days, along with other characteristic symptoms such as injected conjunctiva, swollen mucosal linings around the mouth, and red, swollen hands and feet. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also recommended for treatment.
      Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) is not indicated for this child as they do not exhibit symptoms of meningitis or endocarditis. Ibuprofen is also not appropriate for Kawasaki disease, as it is typically used for other conditions such as juvenile idiopathic arthritis and soft-tissue injuries. Low-dose aspirin may be given to low-risk patients who present more than 10 days after symptom onset and have normal ESR/CRP results and initial echocardiogram results.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old male is brought to the emergency department (ED) after sustaining a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to the emergency department (ED) after sustaining a head injury during a soccer game. According to his parents, he lost consciousness immediately after the collision for several minutes. He regained consciousness and was himself for a few hours, but they brought him to the ED when he became drowsy and complained of a headache. On examination, his Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is 12, his pupils are unequal, and there is a noticeable swelling on the right side of his head. Based on the probable diagnosis of an intracranial hemorrhage, which vessel is most likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Bridging veins

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is indicative of an extradural haemorrhage, which typically involves a lucid period following a significant head injury. In contrast, subdural haemorrhages often result in fluctuating consciousness and are more commonly seen in elderly individuals or those with a history of alcohol abuse. The primary pathology in a subdural haematoma is the tearing of bridging veins, while damage to the middle meningeal artery is the primary cause of extradural haematomas. The carotid artery is not located within the intracranial space, and berry aneurysms typically burst in the Circle of Willis, resulting in a subarachnoid haemorrhage that presents with a sudden and severe headache known as a thunderclap headache. The dural artery does not exist.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his left tibia, which was treated with an intramedullary nail. He developed severe pain that was unresponsive to morphine during the night after his surgery. The pain worsened and was accompanied by a tingling sensation and a sensation of tightness in his leg. On examination, his left leg was swollen and tense, and he experienced pain when his toes were passively flexed. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange immediate fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases, leading to ischaemic injury. The classical symptoms of compartment syndrome include increasing pain, paraesthesiae, and other signs of ischaemia. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to the loss of the affected limb.

      The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is usually a clinical one. However, if any doubt exists, compartment pressures can be measured. If the pressure is greater than 30 mmHg, immediate decompression by fasciotomy is necessary.

      Treatment should not be delayed if compartment syndrome is suspected. Delaying treatment may lead to the loss of the limb. Opioid analgesia may be prescribed to help with the patient’s pain, but it will not treat the underlying problem.

      If a patient presents with classical symptoms of acute ischaemia of the leg, they should be assessed for the six Ps: pain, pallor, pulseless, paraesthesiae, paralysis, and perishingly cold. If these symptoms are present, immediate fasciotomy is necessary.

      After treatment, the patient should be monitored for pain levels over the next 24 hours. Raising the limb and monitoring it in 2 hours can also be helpful. However, the most important thing is to recognize the signs of compartment syndrome and seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are summoned to attend to a 22-year-old male patient in the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to attend to a 22-year-old male patient in the Emergency Department. He had lacerated his arm, and a junior physician had been trying to stitch the wound. During the administration of lidocaine, she had neglected to aspirate the syringe to confirm that she was not in a blood vessel. The patient initially reported experiencing tongue numbness and a metallic taste in his mouth, and he is now experiencing seizures throughout his body.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Correct Answer: 20% lipid emulsion

      Explanation:

      Local anaesthetic toxicity can be treated with IV lipid emulsion. If a patient has received intravenous lidocaine and experiences symptoms such as confusion, dizziness, dysphoria, or seizures, it is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. Flumazenil is an antagonist for benzodiazepine overdose, while N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol overdose, and naloxone is used for opioid overdose.

      Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: A B-hCG should be carried out in the first instance

      Correct Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management

      Explanation:

      If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulcers, accompanied by feelings of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulcers, accompanied by feelings of being unwell, feverish, headache, and muscle pains. She had engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a casual male partner two weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. Upon examination, multiple shallow ulcers are observed on her vulva, along with mildly tender muscles and a low-grade fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Genital Ulcers

      Chancroid, a sexually transmitted infection, is characterized by multiple painful ulcers that appear within three to ten days after exposure to the bacteria. This infection is more common in tropical regions. On the other hand, genital infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV) typically presents with multiple painful ulcers one to two weeks after exposure to the virus. HSV is the most common cause of multiple painful genital ulcers and can also cause a systemic illness. Herpes zoster, another viral infection, can also cause multiple painful genital ulcers, but this is much less common than HSV. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) usually causes a single, painless ulcer and is associated with unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Finally, primary syphilis causes a single, painless ulcer, while secondary syphilis causes multiple painless ulcers. the different causes of genital ulcers is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man appears drowsy and has a strong smell of alcohol. According to his friend, he complained of sudden, severe retrosternal pain that worsened when swallowing. The patient has a history of alcoholic liver disease. His vital signs include a heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, temperature of 37.7ÂșC, oxygen saturation of 98%, and blood pressure of 100/74 mmHg. Upon examination, there are crackles heard on auscultation of his chest wall, and dried vomit is present around his mouth. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Boerhaave's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a condition where the oesophagus ruptures spontaneously due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This man’s symptoms, including retrosternal chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema, are consistent with the classic triad of Boerhaave’s syndrome. Alcoholics and individuals with bulimia are at higher risk of developing this condition due to forceful vomiting against a closed glottis, which can cause a build-up of pressure in the oesophagus and lead to a transmural rupture. Urgent surgery is required for individuals with this condition, who tend to be systemically unwell.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices, duodenal ulcer haemorrhage, and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are not the correct diagnoses for this man’s symptoms. Bleeding oesophageal varices typically present with life-threatening haematemesis, while duodenal ulcer haemorrhage causes hypotension, melena, and haematemesis. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a small tear at the gastroesophageal junction that usually presents with haematemesis on a background of vomiting. None of these conditions would explain the subcutaneous emphysema or retrosternal chest pain seen in this case.

      Boerhaave’s Syndrome: A Dangerous Rupture of the Oesophagus

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when the oesophagus ruptures due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This rupture is typically located on the left side of the oesophagus and can cause sudden and severe chest pain. Patients may also experience subcutaneous emphysema, which is the presence of air under the skin of the chest wall.

      To diagnose Boerhaave’s syndrome, a CT contrast swallow is typically performed. Treatment involves thoracotomy and lavage, with primary repair being feasible if surgery is performed within 12 hours of onset. If surgery is delayed beyond 12 hours, a T tube may be inserted to create a controlled fistula between the oesophagus and skin. However, delays beyond 24 hours are associated with a very high mortality rate.

      Complications of Boerhaave’s syndrome can include severe sepsis, which occurs as a result of mediastinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Domperidone

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs

      Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.

      On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome,...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome, to hospital. She has been feeding poorly and has been constipated.

      On examination, her abdomen is distended.

      A colonic biopsy shows absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa.

      What is the initial management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Immediate surgery

      Correct Answer: Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation

      Explanation:

      Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation is the initial management for Hirschsprung’s disease. The absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa is a diagnostic criterion, and serial rectal irrigation should be performed before surgery to prevent enterocolitis. Conservative management is not recommended according to current guidelines, and high dose steroids have no role in this scenario. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but serial rectal irrigation should be performed beforehand to prevent enterocolitis. Laxatives are not appropriate for medical management in Hirschsprung’s disease.

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that has been going on for 6 months. He has a BMI of 30 kg/mÂČ, a history of hypertension, and has been smoking for 35 years. He reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy.
      What is the primary initial test that should be done for this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: What to Test For

      When a man presents with erectile dysfunction, it is important to test for reversible or modifiable risk factors. One common risk factor is diabetes, so all men should have a HbA1c or fasting blood glucose test. A lipid profile should also be done to calculate cardiovascular risk. Erectile dysfunction can be an early sign of cardiovascular disease, especially in patients with pre-existing risk factors such as hypertension, increased BMI, and smoking history. Additionally, a blood test for morning testosterone should be done.

      However, a C-reactive protein test is not useful as a first-line test for erectile dysfunction. An ultrasound abdomen and urea and electrolyte tests are also not helpful in establishing an underlying cause. While an enlarged prostate may be associated with erectile dysfunction, a urine dip is not necessary if the patient has no symptoms of a urinary-tract infection. Overall, testing for diabetes and cardiovascular risk factors is crucial in the initial investigation of erectile dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      9.1
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints of abdominal pain and vomiting. She underwent a gallstone removal procedure earlier in the day. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 102 beats/min, blood pressure of 132/92 mmHg, temperature of 38.6ÂșC, oxygen saturation of 99% in room air, and respiratory rate of 20/min. Blood tests are ordered and a CT scan of the abdomen is requested. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent complication of ERCP is acute pancreatitis, which is indicated by the patient’s symptoms. These may include abdominal pain that spreads to the back, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia caused by pain, and fever. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count, lipase, and CT abdomen should be ordered.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended dose increase. When should her levels be re-checked?

      Your Answer: In 1 month

      Correct Answer: In 1 week

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, if the levels remain stable, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiothoracic (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/4) 25%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Surgery (1/4) 25%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
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