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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is true about number needed to harm? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about number needed to harm?

      Your Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.

      Explanation:

      Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.

      In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 82-year old male has shortness of breath which is made worse when...

    Correct

    • An 82-year old male has shortness of breath which is made worse when he lies down but investigations have revealed a normal ejection fraction. Why might this be?

      Your Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Decreased stroke volume causes decreased ejection fraction which results in diastolic dysfunction.
      Ejection fraction is not a useful measure in someone with diastolic dysfunction because stroke volume may be reduced whilst end-diastolic volume may be reduced.
      Diastolic dysfunction may arise with reduced heart compliance.

      Ejection fraction measures of the proportion of blood leaving the ventricles with each beat and is calculated as follows:
      Stroke volume / end-diastolic volume.

      A healthy ejection fraction is usually taken as 60% (based on a stroke volume of 70ml and end-diastolic volume of 120ml).

      Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.

      Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
      Hypotension also decreases venous return.
      A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output.
      Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.

      Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for...

    Correct

    • An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery. Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.

      The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon mask ventilation, patient's oxygen saturation level dropped to 90% despite maximal head extension, jaw thrust and two handed mask seal. Intubation was performed twice but failed. Use of bougie also failed to localize the trachea. Oxygen levels continued to drop, but was maintained between 80 and 88% with mask ventilation. Which of the following options is the best action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway

      Explanation:

      A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.

      Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply €˜airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise....

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin. What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?

      Your Answer: Beta-lactamase production

      Explanation:

      Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to β-lactamase production which opens the β-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.

      Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA

      Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial rash and shortness of breath. Her mother reported that, prior to the symptoms, she took Co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) for her present ear infection. She also reported that she had no previous exposure to penicillin or any other related antibiotics. Which of the following can help to differentiate between type 1 and type II hypersensitivity reaction in this case?

      Your Answer: Serum mast cell tryptase > 11.5 ng/mL

      Correct Answer: IgE assay specific for amoxycilloyl

      Explanation:

      Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

      Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95€“100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

      An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

      RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

      Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following are part of the endocrine response to uncontrolled bleeding...

    Correct

    • All of the following are part of the endocrine response to uncontrolled bleeding in theatre except:

      Your Answer: Increased secretion of insulin

      Explanation:

      With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

      1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
      2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
      3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
      4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
      5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

      A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
      6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
      7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

      Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
      8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
      9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
      10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
      Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system with a vaporiser outside the circuit (VOC), which of the following is its most deleterious consequence?

      Your Answer: Not employing volatile agent monitoring with vaporiser outside the circuit

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide formation

      Explanation:

      When using dry soda lime for VOCs, very high amounts of carbon monoxide may be produced, regardless of the inhalational anaesthetic agent used. The carbon monoxide produced is sufficient enough to cause cytotoxic and anaemic hypoxia. To prevent this, soda lime canisters are shaken well to even out the packing of granules. This can help to evenly distribute gas flow for proper CO2 absorption and ventilation.

      Compound A is formed when dry soda lime, or soda lime in high temperature, reacts with the inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane. Animal studies have shown renal toxicity in rats, but renal adverse effects in humans are yet to be observed.

      When monitors are not employed with VOCs, deleterious effects are not for certain. However, monitors not employed with vaporiser inside the circuit (VIC) can lead to significant adverse events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?

      Your Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.

      It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
      It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.

      The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.

      The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Correct

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Isoflurane

      Explanation:

      The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

      MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

      Desflurane 18 6
      Isoflurane 90 1.2
      Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
      Sevoflurane 53.4 2
      Xenon 1.9 71

      With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?

      Your Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together

      Explanation:

      There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.

      Each half of the circle is formed by:
      1. Anterior communicating artery
      2. Anterior cerebral artery
      3. Internal carotid artery
      4. Posterior communicating artery
      5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar artery

      The circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery. He has...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a limited exercise tolerance. He agrees to the procedure being performed with an interscalene brachial plexus block. Which of the following neurological complications puts this patient at the greatest risk?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve block

      Explanation:

      An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).

      The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.

      Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.

      ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.

      When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?

      Your Answer: Left vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.

      The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.

      The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.

      No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic...

    Correct

    • A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers. Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?

      Your Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.

      Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.

      It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.

      When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.

      Therefore:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
      Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
      When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.

      There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man is to be operated.   His past history is significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is to be operated.   His past history is significant for a stroke, and some residual neurological deficit. The cranial nerves are examined clinically. He is unable to rotate his head to the left side when resistance is applied. Moreover, there is tongue wasting on the right side. There are no unusual sensory signs and symptoms. The most likely reason for these clinical findings is?

      Your Answer: Damage to glossopharyngeal (IX) and hypoglossal (XII) nerves

      Correct Answer: Damage to hypoglossal (XII) and spinal accessory (XI) nerves

      Explanation:

      The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.

      The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.

      The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.

      The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.

      Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which among the following is summed up by F statistic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is summed up by F statistic?

      Your Answer: Students t-test

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a...

    Correct

    • During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment. Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: Loss of knee reflex

      Explanation:

      Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.

      The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).

      The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential. What is...

    Correct

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential. What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      7.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistical Methods (1/2) 50%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Pathophysiology (1/4) 25%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Passmed