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Question 1
Incorrect
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A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?Your Answer: With dry, itchy and scaly lesions
Correct Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions
Explanation:Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection
Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.
While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Photodynamic therapy
Correct Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?
Your Answer: Avoid weight-bearing for 28 days
Correct Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated
Explanation:Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of chronic pain and morning stiffness in her hands that lasts for a few minutes. These symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past ten years. She applies diclofenac gel to her hands, which provides relief from the pain. During the examination, the doctor observes squaring of her thumbs on both sides.
What is the probable diagnosis based on the given presentation?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is often characterized by stiffness that worsens after long periods of inactivity, such as sleep. This stiffness typically lasts only a few minutes, unlike inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, which can cause morning stiffness lasting up to an hour. One distinctive feature of hand osteoarthritis is squaring of the thumbs, specifically in the carpometacarpal joint. Pain associated with hand osteoarthritis tends to be worse with activity and relieved by rest. Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine and can also cause morning stiffness, but this stiffness is typically felt in the back rather than the hands. Osteoporosis itself does not cause pain or stiffness, but it can lead to bone fractures and is more commonly associated with large joint osteoarthritis than hand osteoarthritis. Reiter’s syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is characterized by conjunctivitis, urethritis, and oligoarthritis, typically affecting the knee. Squaring of the thumbs is not a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis, which is instead associated with swan-neck deformity, ulnar deviation, and subluxation of the carpal bones, among other symptoms.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-month history of epigastric pain and weight loss. She mentions that she tried over-the-counter antacids which provided some relief initially, but the pain has got worse. She decided to see her GP after realising she had lost about 5 kg. She denies any vomiting or loose stools. She has never had problems with her stomach before and she has no significant family history. Endoscopy and biopsy are performed; histology shows active inflammation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori gastritis
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori gastritis is a common condition that can cause gastritis and peptic ulcers in some individuals. It is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium and can increase the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. Treatment with antibiotics is necessary to eradicate the infection. Invasive carcinoma is unlikely in this patient as they do not have other symptoms associated with it. A duodenal ulcer is possible but not confirmed by the upper GI endoscopy. Crohn’s disease is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms. A gastrointestinal stromal tumour would have been detected during the endoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations and weakness. The senior doctor finds the arterial blood gas is as follows:
pH 7.5
pO2 12.6 kPa
pCO2 5.0 kPa
HCO3− 35 mmol/l
Which of the following could be the underlying cause?Your Answer: Prolonged vomiting
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis in a patient with prolonged vomiting
Prolonged vomiting can lead to metabolic alkalosis, a condition characterized by an elevated pH and bicarbonate level in the blood. However, the underlying cause of metabolic alkalosis can vary, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to guide appropriate treatment. Here, we consider several potential diagnoses for a patient with prolonged vomiting and metabolic alkalosis, based on the available information.
First, we note that the patient’s normal PaCO2 suggests a metabolic, rather than respiratory, cause of the alkalosis. One possible mechanism for metabolic alkalosis in this context is the loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and water through vomiting, which can lead to an alkaline tide and compensatory renal retention of bicarbonate. Hypokalemia may also occur as a result of renal compensation, contributing to symptoms such as palpitations and weakness.
However, other conditions may also cause metabolic alkalosis in a patient with prolonged vomiting. For example, chronic renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis, but vomiting may complicate the picture. In contrast, COPD is associated with respiratory acidosis, characterized by CO2 retention and a low pH, making this diagnosis unlikely in our patient. Similarly, Addison’s disease, which involves adrenal insufficiency and impaired proton excretion, would lead to metabolic acidosis rather than alkalosis.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis in a patient with prolonged vomiting includes several possibilities, such as loss of HCl and water, chronic renal failure, and other underlying conditions. Further evaluation and management should be guided by the specific clinical context and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of intense pain in his left eye, particularly when exposed to light, and blurred vision. He has a medical history of Crohn's disease, which is being managed with azathioprine. Upon examination, there is conjunctival injection at the cornea-sclera junction, increased tearing, and a smaller pupil in the left eye compared to the right. What is the necessary treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Pilocarpine and β-blocker drops
Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This patient’s history of Crohn’s disease increases their risk of developing acute uveitis. Steroid drops are necessary to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegic drops prevent adhesions between the lens and iris and relieve spasms of the ciliary body. Antibiotic drops are not indicated for anterior uveitis, as they are used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis. Antihistamine drops are used for allergic conjunctivitis, topical NSAID drops for episcleritis, and pilocarpine and β-blocker drops for acute closed angle glaucoma.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days ago. She is concerned about the possibility of getting pregnant as she is not using any form of contraception. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma and major depression, and is currently taking sertraline 25mg once daily, salbutamol inhaler 200 micrograms as needed, beclomethasone 400 micrograms twice daily, and formoterol 12 micrograms twice daily. She is currently on day 26 of a 35-day menstrual cycle. What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy in this patient?
Your Answer: Intra-uterine device
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman visits her GP for a wound check, one week after undergoing a total knee replacement surgery. Despite a smooth recovery and increased mobility, she complains of difficulty in dorsiflexing her foot while walking. Based on this information, which structure is most likely to have been affected during the TKA procedure?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis
Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and while obesity is often thought to be a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.
For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.
Post-operative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises. Walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.
Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to reduce the risk of thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.
During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)
What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?Your Answer: <100 g/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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