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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 21 year old intravenous drug abuser is recovering following surgical drainage of a psoas abscess. She is found collapsed and unresponsive in the bathroom with pinpoint pupils. Which of the following is the best step in immediate management?
Your Answer: Intravenous flumazenil
Correct Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Explanation:Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Naloxone is a medication approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to prevent overdose by opioids such as heroin, morphine, and oxycodone. It blocks opioid receptor sites, reversing the toxic effects of the overdose. Naloxone is administered when a patient is showing signs of opioid overdose. The medication can be given by intranasal spray, intramuscular (into the muscle), subcutaneous (under the skin), or intravenous injection.
Several conditions and drugs can cause pinpoint pupils, including:
Prescription opioids or narcotics
Some medications have opioids or narcotics in them. Opioids, including morphine, are drugs commonly used for pain relief. Opioids can affect a person psychologically and are highly addictive.People often take prescription opioids in pill form to treat severe post-surgical pain, such as from dental surgery, or for long-term pain, as with some cancers.
Prescription opioids that may cause pinpoint pupils include:
oxycodone
morphine
hydrocodone
codeine
methadone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 52 year old man presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to his left iliac fossa. He is hemodynamically unstable and is taken immediately to the OT for emergency laparotomy. During surgery, colonic mesentery is found to be injured that has resulted in the blood loss. The left colon is also injured with signs of local perforation and contamination. Which of the following is the most important aspect of management?
Your Answer: Perform a sub total colectomy and end ileostomy
Correct Answer: Resect the left colon and construct a left iliac fossa end colostomy
Explanation:Colonic injuries that are managed with resection are associated with a high complication rate regardless of whether an anastomosis or colostomy is performed. Colonic resection and anastomosis can be performed safely in the majority of patients with severe colonic injury, including injuries to the left colon. For injuries of the right colon, an ileocolostomy has a lower incidence of leakage than a colocolonic anastomosis. For injuries to the left colon, there remains a role for colostomy specifically in the subgroups of patients with a high ATI or hypotension, because these patients are at greater risk for an anastomotic leak. The role of resection and primary anastomosis versus colostomy in colonic trauma requires further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man who plays social rugby presents with recurrent anterior dislocation of the right shoulder. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bankart lesion
Explanation:This patient has a Bankart lesion which is the most common underlying abnormality in recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder.
Bankart lesion is an injury of the anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum of the shoulder due to anterior shoulder dislocation. When this happens, a pocket at the front of the glenoid forms that allows the humeral head to dislocate into it. It is usually visualised by CT and MRI scanning and is often repaired arthroscopically.
Shoulder fractures and dislocations usually result from low-energy falls in predominantly elderly females or from high-energy trauma in young males. They can be associated with nerve injury (commonly axillary), and fracture-dislocation of the humeral head. Anterior shoulder dislocation (glenohumeral dislocation) is the most common type of shoulder dislocation (>90%) and is usually traumatic in nature.
Early assessment of shoulder dislocation:
Careful history, examination, and documentation of neurovascular status of the upper limb, in particular the axillary nerve, is important. This should be re-assessed after manipulation. Early radiographs should also be done to confirm the direction of the dislocation.Initial management of anterior dislocation:
It consists of emergent closed reduction (to prevent lasting chondral damage) under Entonox and analgesia, but often requires conscious sedation. The affected arm should then be immobilised in a polysling. Initial management requires emergent reduction to prevent lasting chondral damage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss. What should be the best management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rotational skin flap
Explanation:Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.
A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 64 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with acute bowel obstruction. She complains of vomiting up to 15 times per day and is currently taking erythromycin. She is now complaining of dizziness that is sudden in onset. ECG shows torsades de pointes. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV Magnesium sulphate
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. Torsade de pointes, often referred to as torsade, is associated with a prolonged QT interval, which may be congenital or acquired. Torsade usually terminates spontaneously but frequently recurs and may degenerate into ventricular fibrillation. This woman is likely to have hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia as a result of vomiting. In addition to this, the erythromycin will predispose her to torsades de pointes. The patient should be given Magnesium 2g over 10 minutes. Knowledge of the management of this peri arrest diagnosis is hence important in surgical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presents with sudden chest pain. On examination, her heart rate is 130 bpm, blood pressure is 150/70 mmHg, and saturation is 92% on 15L oxygen. Signs of thrombophlebitis are seen in the left leg. Moreover, auscultation of the heart reveals no murmurs and her chest is clear.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Chest pain, hypoxia, and clear chest on auscultation in pregnancy should lead to a high suspicion of pulmonary embolism (PE).
PE is one of the leading causes of mortality in pregnancy. Evaluation with low-dose perfusion scintigraphy may be preferable to computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA).
PE is treated with LMWH throughout pregnancy and for 4–6 weeks after childbirth. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy (though may be continued in women with mechanical heart valves due to a significant risk of thromboembolism). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted
Explanation:Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted
Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old male complains of sharp chest pain. He is due to have elective surgery to replace his left hip. He has been bed-bound for 3 months. He suddenly collapses; his blood pressure is 70/40mmHg, heart rate 120 bpm and his saturations are 74% on air. He is deteriorating in front of you. What is the next best management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombolysis with Alteplase
Explanation:The patient has Pulmonary embolism (PE).
PE is when a thrombus becomes lodged in an artery in the lung and blocks blood flow to the lung. Pulmonary embolism usually arises from a thrombus that originates in the deep venous system of the lower extremities; however, it rarely also originates in the pelvis, renal, upper extremity veins, or the right heart chambers. After travelling to the lung, large thrombi can lodge at the bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery or the lobar branches and cause hemodynamic compromise.
The classic presentation of PE is the abrupt onset of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia. However, most patients with pulmonary embolism have no obvious symptoms at presentation. Rather, symptoms may vary from sudden catastrophic hemodynamic collapse to gradually progressive dyspnoea.
Physical signs of pulmonary embolism include the following:
Tachypnoea (respiratory rate >16/min): 96%
Rales: 58%
Accentuated second heart sound: 53%
Tachycardia (heart rate >100/min): 44%
Fever (temperature >37.8°C [100.04°F]): 43%
Diaphoresis: 36%
S3 or S4 gallop: 34%
Clinical signs and symptoms suggesting thrombophlebitis: 32%
Lower extremity oedema: 24%
Cardiac murmur: 23%
Cyanosis: 19%
Management
Anticoagulation and thrombolysis
Immediate full anticoagulation is mandatory for all patients suspected of having DVT or PE. Diagnostic investigations should not delay empirical anticoagulant therapy.
Thrombolytic therapy should be used in patients with acute pulmonary embolism who have hypotension (systolic blood pressure< 90 mm Hg) who do not have a high bleeding risk and in selected patients with acute pulmonary embolism not associated with hypotension who have a low bleeding risk and whose initial clinical presentation or clinical course suggests a high risk of developing hypotension.
Long-term anticoagulation is critical to the prevention of recurrence of DVT or pulmonary embolism because even in patients who are fully anticoagulated, DVT and pulmonary embolism can and often do recur.
Thrombolytic agents used in managing pulmonary embolism include the following:
– Alteplase
– ReteplaseHeparin should be given to patients with intermediate or high clinical probability before imaging.
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) should be considered (a) as a first dose bolus, (b) in massive PE, or (c) where rapid reversal of effect may be needed.
Otherwise, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) should be considered as preferable to UFH, having equal efficacy and safety and being easier to use.
Oral anticoagulation should only be commenced once venous thromboembolism (VTE) has been reliably confirmed.
The target INR should be 2.0–3.0; when this is achieved, heparin can be discontinued.
The standard duration of oral anticoagulation is: 4–6 weeks for temporary risk factors, 3 months for first idiopathic, and at least 6 months for other; the risk of bleeding should be balanced with that of further VTE. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man is scheduled to undergo an elective femoral-popliteal bypass. He presents to the physician with sudden onset of central crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. ECG is significant for some ischemic changes. The nursing staff initiates high flow oxygen and gives a spray of glyceryl trinitrate. However, this has resulted in no relief of his symptoms. Which of the following drugs should be administered next to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Explanation:Unstable angina is a common cardiovascular condition associated with major adverse clinical events. Over the last 15 years, therapeutic advances have dramatically reduced the complication and mortality rates of this serious condition. The standard of therapy in patients with unstable angina now incorporates the combined use of a potent antithrombotic (aspirin, clopidogrel, heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists) and anti-anginal (β-blockade and intravenous nitrates) regimens complemented by the selective and judicious application of coronary revascularisation strategies.
Increasingly, these invasive and non-invasive therapeutic interventions are being guided not only by the clinical risk profile but also by the determination of serum cardiac and inflammatory markers.
Moreover, rapid and intensive management of associated risk factors, such as hypercholesterolaemia, would appear to have potentially substantial benefits even within the acute in-hospital phase of unstable angina. Aspirin 300mg should be given as soon as possible. If the patient has a moderate to high risk of myocardial infarction, then Clopidogrel should be given with a low molecular weight heparin. Thrombolysis or urgent percutaneous intervention should be given if there are significant ECG changes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy accidentally spills boiling water over his legs and is diagnosed with superficial partial thickness burns. Which of the following is least likely to occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to sweat glands
Explanation:Superficial burns are confined in the depth of the epidermis, and all dermal appendages and nerve endings are intact. Superficial burns generally heal in 3 to 5 days with minimal intervention and do not leave significant scarring as they typically heal by re epithelialization. Therefore the sweat glands will be intact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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