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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two day history of a red right eye. There is no itch or pain. Pupils are 3mm, equal and reactive to light. Visual acuity is 6/5 in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are common, with 25% of patients having eye problems. These manifestations include keratoconjunctivitis sicca (most common), episcleritis (erythema), scleritis (erythema and pain), corneal ulceration, and keratitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea. Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Pulsatile GnRH

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.
      Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months; progestin can be added later.

      In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.

      Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the site where B-type natriuretic peptide is mainly...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the site where B-type natriuretic peptide is mainly secreted?

      Your Answer: Ventricular myocardium

      Explanation:

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted mainly from the left ventricle and it is secreted as a response to stretching caused by increased ventricular blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He has reported increasing bone and muscle aches over the past few weeks.   Medications include ramipril, amlodipine and indapamide for blood pressure control, atorvastatin for lipid management, and insulin for control of his blood sugar. On examination his BP is 148/80 mmHg, his pulse is 79 and regular. His BMI is 28.   Investigations show: Haemoglobin 10.7 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count 8.2 x 10(9)/l (4-11) Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400) Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146) Serum potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine 192 μmol/l (79-118) Calcium 2.18 mmol/l (2.2-2.67) Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l (0.7-1.5)   He has tried following a low phosphate diet.   Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in controlling his phosphate levels?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Sevelamer is a phosphate-binding drug that can lower raised serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Because of its aluminium-related side-effects, aluminium hydroxide is no longer the drug of choice.
      The other options are calcium-containing salts that may increase risks of tissue calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months. She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone). A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal. Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Low body weight. Excessively low body weight — about 10 percent under normal weight — interrupts many hormonal functions in your body, potentially halting ovulation.
      In Polycystic ovaries there is excess weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified. Investigations reveal: Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l, Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l, Bilirubin 78 μmol/L, Albumin 41g/l. Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      94.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Flexion of the elbow

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that his partner is being unfaithful. When asked if he has any evidence to prove that this is true, he says no. However, he appears to be distressed and believes that he is right. Which condition could this be a symptom of?

      Your Answer: Grandiose delusion

      Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome (OS) is a type of paranoid delusional jealousy, characterized by the false absolute certainty of the infidelity of a partner, leading to preoccupation with a partner’s sexual unfaithfulness based on unfounded evidence. OS has been associated with psychiatric and neurological disorders including stroke, brain trauma, brain tumours, neurodegenerative disorders, encephalitis, multiple sclerosis, normal pressure hydrocephalus, endocrine disorders, and drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed....

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed. When assessing his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which one of the following variables is not required by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?

      Your Answer: Serum urea

      Explanation:

      A formula for estimating glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is the Modification Diet of Renal Disease (MDRD) equation which takes into account the following variables: serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. Thus, serum urea is not required in this formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of atrial fibrillation. He was warfarinised and discharged. Later he was reviewed and found to be in sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Continue warfarin for 6 months

      Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin

      Explanation:

      CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
      Congestive heart failure – 1 point
      Hypertension – 1 point
      Age ≥75 years – 2 points
      Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
      Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
      Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
      Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
      Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
      A score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 3, so he needs life long warfarin to prevent stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      102.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years. She is very anxious about her irregular menses and worried as her mother was diagnosed with uterine cancer recently. She is a lawyer and does not want to conceive, at least for the next couple of years. The examination is essentially normal except for coarse dark hair being noticed under her chin and over her lower back. Investigations done during the follicular phase: Serum androstenedione 10.1 nmol/l (0.6-8.8), Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate 11.6 ىmol/l (2-10), Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone 5.6 nmol/l (1-10), Serum oestradiol 220 pmol/l (200-400), Serum testosterone 3.6 nmol/l (0.5-3), Serum sex hormone binding protein 32 nmol/l (40-137), Plasma luteinising hormone 3.3 U/l (2.5-10), Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/l (2.5-10). What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Combined OCP

      Explanation:

      This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
      First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
      If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
      First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate–resistant PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific...

    Correct

    • In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.

      The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which decreases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.   What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer: Electrolyte abnormalities

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from her abdominal wound. Her full blood count (FBC) and blood film showed hyperleukocytosis and the presence of promyelocytes, along with the following: Hb: 9.2g/dL, Plts: 932 x 10^9/L, INR: 1.4 (Coagulation profile). What should be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Give fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The patient has acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) with associated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Although
      the platelet count is high, platelet function is ineffective.

      Patients may present, as in this case, with severe bleeding, and the most appropriate emergency treatment would be administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and an effusion clinically. There is concern that it may be an empyema.   Which test would be most useful to resolve the suspicion?

      Your Answer: Pleural fluid white cell count and differential

      Correct Answer: Pleural fluid pH

      Explanation:

      If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.

      The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
      -Grossly purulent pleural fluid
      -pH level less than 7.2
      -WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
      -Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
      -Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
      -Positive pleural fluid culture

      The most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      Perinatal transmission is the most common cause of Hepatitis B infection worldwide. Post-exposure prophylaxis should be provided, which consists of hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. Without this, about 40% will develop chronic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level. His recent blood results show: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, Plts: 127 x 10^9/L, ESR: 45 mm/hr, IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL). Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10–15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain on swallowing. Current medication includes a salbutamol and becotide inhaler, bendrofluazide and amlodipine. What is the most likely cause of the presentation?

      Your Answer: Achalasia secondary to amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      The history gives you a woman who is on inhaled steroid therapy. It is always a good idea for patients to rinse their mouths well after using inhaled steroids. Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) is a symptom of oesophageal candidiasis, which is the most likely answer given the steroids. Typically, you might see this in someone who is immunocompromised (classically, in HIV+ patients).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55 yr. old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 yr. old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe central chest pain for the past one hour, associated with sweating and vomiting. Her ECG showed ST elevation myocardial infarction, evident in leads V2-V4. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: History of peptic ulcer disease

      Correct Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      86.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Cardiology (1/3) 33%
Nephrology (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (0/3) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Passmed