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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a displaced fracture above the greater and lesser trochanter of the proximal femur on the right side. What would be the best surgical approach for this patient?
Your Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Correct Answer: Hemiarthroplasty
Explanation:When a hip fracture occurs within the joint capsule, there is a higher chance of the femoral head experiencing avascular necrosis. This type of fracture is considered displaced and requires treatment with hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, especially for older patients. However, younger patients may opt for hip fixation instead of replacement as prosthetic joints have a limited lifespan.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.
Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left thigh pain, tingling, and numbness that have been gradually worsening for the past 2 months. She points to the lateral and posterior aspects of her left thigh when asked to indicate the affected area. There is no history of leg or hip injury. During the examination, she demonstrates full range of motion in both hips, and her power is 5/5.
What nerve is the most probable cause of her injury?Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Explanation:The correct answer is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the nerve near the ASIS. The location of the tingling and numbness, as well as the absence of motor symptoms, point towards this diagnosis.
The femoral nerve, obturator nerve, and sciatic nerve are not the correct answers. Each of these nerves would cause different symptoms and are typically injured in different ways.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sharp pain on the right side of their chest while bench pressing 120kg at the gym. They heard a snapping noise and noticed swelling on the right side of their chest and bruising on their right arm. Upon examination, the right side of their chest appears asymmetrical with bunched up musculature, indicating a tear of the pectoralis major tendon. What is the typical insertion point for this tendon?
Your Answer: Greater tubercle of the humerus
Correct Answer: Lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus
Explanation:The correct answer is the lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus, which is the insertion site of the latissimus dorsi muscle.
A ruptured pectoralis major tendon is a common injury in weight training, often occurring during the bench press exercise. The patient may experience a painful snap or hear a snapping noise, and the tension in the muscle is lost, causing the chest wall to lose its shape. Bruising may be visible on the chest or arm.
Other anatomical features mentioned in the question include the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus, which are insertion sites for various rotator cuff muscles, and the pectineal line on the femur, which is the insertion site for the pectineus muscle.
Pectoralis Major Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Nerve Supply, and Actions
The pectoralis major muscle is a large, fan-shaped muscle located in the chest region. It originates from the medial two thirds of the clavicle, manubrium, and sternocostal angle and inserts into the lateral edge of the bicipital groove of the humerus. The muscle is innervated by the lateral pectoral nerve and its main actions include adduction and medial rotation of the humerus.
In simpler terms, the pectoralis major muscle is responsible for bringing the arm towards the body and rotating it inward. It is an important muscle for movements such as pushing, pulling, and lifting. The muscle is commonly targeted in strength training exercises such as bench press and push-ups. Understanding the origin, insertion, nerve supply, and actions of the pectoralis major muscle is important for proper exercise form and injury prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male suffers a fall resulting in a scaphoid bone fracture. What is the primary source of blood supply for the scaphoid bone?
Your Answer: From its proximal lateral border
Correct Answer: From the distal end
Explanation:Due to the fact that the blood supply to the scaphoid enters from a small non-articular surface near its distal end, there is a risk of non-union with transverse fractures of the scaphoid.
The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of psoriasis visits his doctor complaining of new lesions on his back. He mentions that he has only ever had lesions on his knees and elbows before and is worried. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he recently got a tattoo on his back, which is only a week old. He also notes that the new lesions appeared shortly after getting the tattoo. The doctor considers a phenomenon in which new psoriatic lesions develop after skin trauma in patients with psoriasis. What is the term for this phenomenon?
Your Answer: Nikolsky
Correct Answer: Koebner
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of skin lesions at the site of injury. Patients with a history of psoriasis and recent skin trauma are at risk of developing this phenomenon, which can also occur in individuals with other skin conditions like warts and vitiligo. Lichen planus is another condition where the Koebner phenomenon is observed. In contrast, the Nikolsky phenomenon is a dermatological phenomenon seen in pemphigus vulgaris, where the epidermis can be moved over the dermis upon palpation. Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis, causing joint inflammation, pain, stiffness, and swelling.
The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury
The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.
This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.
The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the position of the hyoid bone?
Your Answer: C2
Correct Answer: C3
Explanation:Surface Anatomy of the Neck: Identifying Structures and Corresponding Levels
The neck is a complex region of the body that contains numerous structures and landmarks. By understanding the surface anatomy of the neck, healthcare professionals can accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
In the midline of the neck, several structures can be felt from top to bottom. These include the hyoid at the level of C3, the notch of the thyroid cartilage at C4, and the cricoid cartilage at C6. The lower border of the cricoid cartilage is particularly significant as it corresponds to several important structures, including the junction of the larynx and trachea, the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, and the level at which the inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland. Additionally, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen in the 6th cervical vertebrae at this level, and the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle crosses the carotid sheath. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion is also located at this level, as well as the carotid tubercle, which can be used to compress the carotid artery.
Overall, understanding the surface anatomy of the neck is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55 years old female patient presented with complaints of morning hand stiffness that improves with use throughout the day. During a physical examination, nonmobile, nodular growths were found over the extensor surfaces of both elbows. Initial laboratory tests showed negative results for rheumatoid factor and Antinuclear antibody screen. To eliminate the possibility of other skin conditions, a biopsy of the nodules was conducted, which revealed cholesterol deposits.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that typically causes symmetric arthritis in multiple joints, with the distal interphalangeal joints being spared. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical features, supported by serological testing that shows positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide or rheumatoid factor. X-rays may reveal periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. A biopsy of rheumatoid nodules that shows cholesterol deposits is considered pathognomonic for RA.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by a combination of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, often accompanied by diarrhea. Patients may also develop keratoderma blennorhagicum, which is characterized by hyperkeratotic vesicles on the palms and soles.
Septic arthritis typically affects a single joint, causing redness, swelling, and pain. It occurs when the synovial membrane is invaded, resulting in yellow, turbid synovial fluid with high neutrophil levels. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis.
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a condition that causes shorter duration of morning stiffness, with symptoms worsening throughout the day with weight-bearing. X-rays may show loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.
Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 65-year-old female, visits a vascular clinic and complains of leg pain while walking, which subsides when she rests. However, she has recently experienced night pain in her leg that wakes her up. She has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and hypercholesterolemia, and her BMI is 29kg/m².
The surgeon suspects peripheral vascular disease and conducts a peripheral vascular exam. During the exam, the surgeon finds it difficult to palpate the posterior tibial pulse.
Where is the posterior tibial pulse located anatomically?Your Answer: Superior posteriorly to the lateral malleolus
Correct Answer: Inferior posteriorly to the medial malleolus
Explanation:The posterior tibial pulse is located inferiorly and posteriorly to the medial malleolus. It is not found superiorly or anteriorly to the medial malleolus, nor is it located posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is important to accurately locate the pulse for proper assessment and diagnosis.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A woman suffers a cut between the base of her ring finger and wrist. A few weeks later, she experiences a decrease in her ability to adduct her thumb. Which nerve is the most probable one to have been damaged?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Deep ulnar nerve
Explanation:Understanding Ulnar Nerve Injury at the Wrist
The ulnar nerve is a major nerve that runs from the neck down to the hand. At the wrist, it divides into two branches: the superficial and deep branches. The superficial branch provides sensation to the skin of the medial third of the palm and one and a half fingers. Meanwhile, the deep branch supplies the abductor and short flexor of the little finger, as well as the opponens digiti minimi. It also passes over the Hook of the Hamate bone and ends in the first dorsal interosseous muscle. In the palm, the deep branch innervates the lumbricals and interosseous muscles.
Ulnar nerve injury at the wrist can occur due to various reasons, such as trauma, compression, or repetitive strain. Symptoms may include numbness, tingling, weakness, and pain in the affected area. Treatment options depend on the severity of the injury and may include rest, physical therapy, medication, or surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Correct
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A 74-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her husband after a fall at home. Upon assessment by the orthopaedics team, it is observed that she is holding her right arm adducted to her side and there is deformity of the proximal arm and shoulder with overlying skin ecchymosis and swelling. Neurovascular examination reveals palpable distal pulses and some paraesthesia over the deltoid region, but loss of active shoulder abduction is noted. What structure is likely to have been affected by this patient's injury?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The correct nerve that is likely injured in a patient with difficulty abducting their arm following a humeral neck fracture is the axillary nerve. This nerve provides motor function to the deltoid muscle, which is responsible for arm abduction at the shoulder joint, and cutaneous sensation to the deltoid region. Proximal humerus fractures, which are common in individuals of the patient’s age and gender, can often result in injury to the axillary nerve.
The brachial plexus is an incorrect answer as injuries to this nerve bundle are rare and would likely result in neurological dysfunction beyond the shoulder. The musculocutaneous nerve is also an incorrect answer as it provides motor function to the anterior compartment of the arm and sensation to the lateral forearm, but not to the deltoid region. The radial nerve is also an incorrect answer as it is typically injured in humeral shaft fractures and would result in wrist drop and paresthesia over the dorsal hand and wrist. The suprascapular nerve is also an incorrect answer as it provides motor innervation to different muscles and sensation to different joints than those affected in this case.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with pain in his right leg.
During physical examination, a clearly demarcated fiery-red lesion is observed on the anterior aspect of the right leg. The lesion is raised above the level of the surrounding skin. Laboratory testing results are as follows:
- WBC: 15 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- CRP: 36 mg/L (normal range: < 5)
Based on the clinical picture and laboratory findings, erysipelas is suspected. What is the most likely causative organism in this scenario?Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Erysipelas is a skin infection that is localized and caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, a Group A streptococcus (GAS) bacterium. This infection affects the upper dermis and can spread to the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive coccus that grows in chains.
Escherichia coli is a bacterium that normally resides in the intestines of healthy individuals and animals. However, some strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins that can cause gastrointestinal illness or urinary tract infections.
Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease, such as meningococcemia, which is a life-threatening sepsis.
Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium that colonizes the skin and mucous membranes of humans and animals. It can cause cellulitis, which is an infection of the deeper skin tissues. Cellulitis typically presents as an ill-defined rash, in contrast to erysipelas, which has a sharper edge and is raised.
Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection
Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.
The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nerves innervates the long head of the biceps femoris muscle?
Your Answer: Common peroneal division of sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Tibial division of sciatic nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal component of the sciatic nerve innervates the short head of biceps femoris, which may be absent at times. On the other hand, the tibial division of the sciatic nerve innervates the long head.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Correct
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During pronation and supination, which bones are involved in movement?
Your Answer: Rotation of the radius on the ulna
Explanation:The movement of the arm’s pronation and supination is caused by the rotation of the radius bone, while the ulna bone remains still. This movement involves two joints: the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints. The humerus bone remains stationary during this process, while the radial head rotates on the humerus’s capitulum. It’s worth noting that the distal carpal bones don’t move in relation to the distal radius during pronation and supination.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits his physician complaining of a rash that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple oval-shaped lesions with a fine-scale on the outer aspects of the lesions. The rash has spread across the patient's trunk and back, resembling a fir tree. The patient reports feeling generally well. The doctor suspects pityriasis rosea and wonders which organism has been linked to its development.
Your Answer: Coxsackie B virus
Correct Answer: Herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7)
Explanation:Herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) is believed to be involved in the development of pityriasis rosea, while the other choices are not linked to this condition. Slapped cheek syndrome is associated with Parvovirus B-19, while Coxsackie B virus is an enterovirus that is associated with aseptic meningitis, Bornholm disease, pericarditis, and myocarditis.
Understanding Pityriasis Rosea
Pityriasis rosea is a rash that typically affects young adults and is characterized by an acute, self-limiting nature. While the exact cause is not fully understood, it is believed that herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) may play a role. Most patients do not experience any warning signs, but some may report a recent viral infection. The rash begins with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by oval, scaly patches that follow a distinct pattern with the longitudinal diameters running parallel to the line of Langer, creating a fir-tree appearance.
The condition is self-limiting and usually disappears within 6-12 weeks. There is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, but topical agents used for psoriasis may be helpful. UVB phototherapy may also be an option. It is important to differentiate pityriasis rosea from guttate psoriasis, which is characterized by tear-drop shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. Both conditions typically resolve spontaneously within a few months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient with motor neuron disease experiences muscle weakness in a cranial nerve innervated muscle. Which muscle is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Levator scapulae muscle
Correct Answer: Trapezius
Explanation:The trapezius muscle is supplied by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), while the levator scapulae muscle is innervated by the fourth and fifth cervical nerves (C4 and C5) as well as the dorsal scapular nerve. The middle scalene muscle receives innervation from the anterior rami of C3-C8. The sternohyoid and sternothyroid muscles, located in the muscular triangle of the anterior neck, are innervated by the ansa cervicalis, which is a component of the cervical plexus and responsible for raising the thyroid cartilage during talking and swallowing.
The trapezius muscle originates from the medial third of the superior nuchal line of the occiput, the external occipital protruberance, the ligamentum nuchae, the spines of C7 and all thoracic vertebrae, and all intervening interspinous ligaments. Its insertion points are the posterior border of the lateral third of the clavicle, the medial border of the acromion, and the upper border of the crest of the spine of the scapula. The spinal portion of the accessory nerve supplies this muscle. The trapezius muscle is responsible for elevating the shoulder girdle and laterally rotating the scapula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Correct
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An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a tender, hot, and painful knee. Upon aspiration and light microscopy, rhomboid crystals with weakly positive birefringence are detected.
What is the composition of these crystals?Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate
Explanation:Pseudogout is a condition where calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the joints, causing inflammation. This is different from gout, which is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals due to factors such as inadequate urea excretion or high purine intake from foods like seafood.
Treatment for pseudogout involves the use of anti-inflammatory medications and joint replacement surgery may be necessary if the condition causes significant joint damage.
In gout, urea levels may be increased, but during an acute attack, they may actually be decreased. Struvite stones are formed from bacterial products, while staghorn stones are large stones that are often caused by Proteus mirabilis and can obstruct the renal pelvis.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A teenage boy comes to the clinic with a winged scapula on his right side after sustaining an injury while playing rugby. The physician informs him that a nerve has been affected. Which specific nerve is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve
Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:A mastectomy patient experiences winged scapula due to paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. This nerve is often affected by rib injuries. The other nerves mentioned do not play a role in this disorder as they do not innervate this muscle. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would affect arm flexion, while damage to the axillary nerve would affect arm abduction. Damage to the thoracodorsal nerve would affect raising the trunk with the upper limb, and damage to the accessory nerve would affect neck movement.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Correct
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What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
Your Answer: A chronic slip, with symptoms over weeks to months is the most common presentation
Explanation:Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children
Hip problems in children can be caused by various conditions. Development dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examination and can be identified through positive Barlow and Ortolani tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain following a viral infection.
Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can be identified through symptoms such as hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. X-rays may show early changes such as widening of joint space, followed by decreased femoral head size or flattening.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is more common in obese children and boys aged 10-15 years. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms such as knee or distal thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which accounts for around 60% of JIA cases, affects four or fewer joints and is characterized by joint pain and swelling, usually in medium-sized joints such as knees, ankles, and elbows. ANA may be positive in JIA and is associated with anterior uveitis.
The image gallery shows examples of Perthes disease and slipped upper femoral epiphysis. It is important to identify and treat hip problems in children early to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic for her rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis. She has been prescribed a new medication to prevent joint destruction and disease progression. However, she needs to take folic acid daily and undergo frequent blood tests. What medication is she likely taking?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate is a commonly used first-line drug for rheumatoid arthritis. It belongs to the group of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs, which also includes sulfasalazine, rituximab, and etanercept.
This medication is taken once a week and works by acting on the immune system. It is effective in treating RA and psoriatic arthritis, as it functions as both an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant.
Before starting treatment with methotrexate, blood tests are required to check for FBC, U&Es, LFTs, and protein and blood in the urine.
During treatment, regular monitoring is necessary. FBC should be checked every other week until six weeks after the last dose increase, then monthly for a year, and thereafter as clinically indicated. LFTs should be tested every three months due to the potential impact of methotrexate on the liver, while U&Es should be checked every 6-12 months.
As methotrexate is a folate antagonist, patients may experience side effects such as hair loss and mouth ulcers. To mitigate these effects, patients are often advised to take folate supplements on the days they are not taking methotrexate.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman from Afghanistan visits her GP complaining of weakness and bony pain in her legs. She denies experiencing any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits and has no significant medical or surgical history. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained:
- Calcium: 1.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.5 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- ALP: 240 u/L (normal range: 30-100)
- PTH: 78 pg/ml (normal range: 15-65)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is osteomalacia, which is characterized by low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP, and raised PTH. It is important to identify the risk factors for osteomalacia, such as decreased sunlight exposure, which can lead to vitamin D deficiency and subsequent hypocalcaemia. In response to hypocalcaemia, PTH levels increase, as seen in this case.
Acute pancreatitis is an incorrect diagnosis as it does not fit the patient’s clinical picture. Osteoarthritis is also an incorrect diagnosis as it would not cause changes in serum calcium, ALP, or PTH levels. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is associated with high levels of PTH and calcium, which is not seen in this patient.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has swelling and tenderness in the middle part of his left forearm and is refusing to move it. The family seems uncooperative and difficult to engage with. Upon questioning, the mother claims the injury occurred from falling off the couch, while the father claims it happened while playing outside. Given the suspicious circumstances, you suspect a non-accidental injury.
What X-ray findings are commonly associated with this type of injury?Your Answer: Greenstick fracture of the radius and ulna
Explanation:Greenstick fractures are a type of bone injury that is frequently seen in children. While spiral fractures of the humerus are often linked to non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider NAI as a possible cause for greenstick fractures as well.
Greenstick fractures typically occur in infants and children and can result from various causes, such as falling on an outstretched hand or experiencing a direct perpendicular impact.
In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone’s cortex is disrupted, while the opposite cortex remains intact. This type of fracture is more common in younger individuals whose bones are not yet fully mineralized and are more likely to bend than break.
Adolescents and adults may experience Monteggia and Galeazzi fractures, which are common forearm injuries. These fractures involve a displaced fracture in one forearm bone and a dislocation of the other.
Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments
Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.
Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his right hand following a fall during a football match earlier in the day. Upon conducting a thorough hand examination, you identify that the pain is concentrated in the anatomical snuffbox. To investigate a possible scaphoid bone fracture, you order an x-ray.
Which structure, passing through the anatomical snuffbox, is most likely to have been affected by this injury?Your Answer: The deep branch of the radial nerve
Correct Answer: The radial artery
Explanation:The radial artery is the only structure that passes through the anatomical snuffbox and is commonly injured by scaphoid bone fractures, as it runs over the bone at the snuffbox. Therefore, it is the most likely structure to be affected by such a fracture.
The median nerve does not pass through the anatomical snuffbox, but rather through the carpal tunnel, so it is less likely to be injured by a scaphoid fracture.
While the radial nerve does pass through the snuffbox, it is the superficial branch, not the deep branch, that does so. Therefore, if a scaphoid bone fracture were to damage the radial nerve, it would likely affect the superficial branch rather than the deep branch.
The basilic vein does not pass through the anatomical snuffbox, but rather travels along the ulnar side of the arm. The cephalic vein is the vein that passes through the snuffbox.
The extensor pollicis longus tendon forms the medial border of the snuffbox, but it is not one of its contents. It runs relatively superficially and is therefore less likely to be affected by a scaphoid bone fracture than a structure that runs closer to the bone, such as the radial artery.
The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist
The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is recuperating from a fall that resulted in a fracture of his left fibular neck. He has observed that his left foot drags on the ground when he attempts to walk. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The patient is likely to have suffered damage to their common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop, following a fibular neck fracture. This is a common occurrence in such cases.
It is important to note that damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, obturator nerve, or pudendal nerve is unlikely to cause foot drop. These nerves are associated with different symptoms and conditions.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with a rash on her right ankle. She suspects it was triggered by a new anklet gifted by her friend. What category of hypersensitivity response does this fall under?
Your Answer: Type 2
Correct Answer: Type 4
Explanation:The Gell and Coombs classification divides hypersensitivity reactions into four types. Type 1 is immediate and IgE mediated, type 2 is mediated by IgG and IgM causing cell death, type 3 is mediated by immune complexes, and type 4 is delayed and mediated by T lymphocytes causing contact dermatitis. Examples of each type include allergic rhinitis, Goodpasture syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nickel is a common cause of contact dermatitis.
Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.
The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with two months of lower back pain. The pain worsens during prolonged periods of sitting and shoots down her left leg. She is still able to perform all of her usual activities but has noticed that she has been catching her left foot on stairs when walking.
On examination, power is normal in all myotomes of the right leg. In the left leg, dorsiflexion is slightly weak. The sensation is intact to touch and pin-prick on the right leg but there is a subjective loss of sensation along the sole of the left foot. Reflexes are normal. Hip abduction is assessed, which shows reduced power on the left compared to the right.
An MRI is organised to assess for pathology.
What spinal level corresponds to the symptoms?Your Answer: Third lumbar vertebrae (L3)
Correct Answer: Fifth lumbar vertebrae (L5)
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Jill, a 24-year-old female, falls on an outstretched hand and is diagnosed with a scaphoid fracture. During examination, she exhibits tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox. What structures form the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox?
Your Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and the ADductor pollicis longus muscles
Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and the ABductor pollicis longus tendons
Explanation:The lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus, not the muscles.
To remember the borders, use the phrase Brevis sandwich which stands for the abductor pollicis longus tendons, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor pollicis longus.
The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist
The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with a recent diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. She is prescribed a brief course of steroids and a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug. Which joint is predominantly impacted by rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer: Cartilaginous
Correct Answer: Synovial
Explanation:There are three main types of joints: synovial, cartilaginous, and fibrous. Synovial joints have a fibrous capsule with ligaments that check excessive movements. Some synovial joints have an intra-articular disc made of fibrocartilage. Cartilaginous joints can grow while resisting forces and eventually become synostoses. Fibrous joints include sutures, which slowly become rigid synostoses, syndesmoses, which allow some movement, and gomphoses, which anchor teeth into alveolar sockets.
Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of a painful rash on his face after experiencing lethargy and headache for 3 days. The man's vital signs are within normal limits. Upon examination, a distinct line of blisters is observed on the upper left side of his face.
What is the most frequent complication associated with this condition in the elderly population?Your Answer: Cranial or peripheral nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Neuralgia
Explanation:The most common complication of shingles is post-herpetic neuralgia, which is characterized by a burning pain in the affected dermatome. This condition is likely to occur in older individuals, who are also at risk of experiencing more severe and prolonged pain. While bacterial superinfection of cutaneous lesions can occur, it is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or group A streptococcal species. Shingles can also lead to complications such as pneumonia, meningoencephalitis, hepatitis, and acute retinal necrosis if it affects internal organs.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy is out on a movie date with his girlfriend. During the film, he keeps his arm over her seat. However, when the movie ends, he realizes that he has limited wrist movement. Upon examination, he is unable to extend his wrist and has reduced sensation in his anatomical snuff box. Which nerve did he damage while at the cinema?
Your Answer: Radial
Explanation:Saturday night syndrome is a condition where the brachial plexus is compressed due to sleeping with the arm over the back of a chair. This can result in a radial nerve palsy, commonly known as wrist drop, where the patient is unable to extend their wrist and it hangs flaccidly.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl falls and suffers a growth plate fracture in her left wrist. What system is utilized to categorize the injury?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Salter - Harris system
Explanation:The Salter-Harris system is widely utilized, but it can be problematic as Type 1 and Type 5 injuries may exhibit similar radiological indications. This is unfortunate because Type 5 injuries have poor outcomes and may go undetected.
Genetic Conditions Causing Pathological Fractures
Osteogenesis imperfecta and osteopetrosis are genetic conditions that can cause pathological fractures. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital condition that results in defective osteoid formation, leading to a lack of intercellular substances like collagen and dentine. This can cause translucent bones, multiple fractures, particularly of the long bones, wormian bones, and a trefoil pelvis. There are four subtypes of osteogenesis imperfecta, each with varying levels of collagen quantity and quality.
Osteopetrosis, on the other hand, causes bones to become harder and more dense. It is an autosomal recessive condition that is most common in young adults. Radiology can reveal a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, which is described as marble bone.
It is important to consider these genetic conditions when evaluating paediatric fractures, especially if there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between the proposed and actual mechanism of injury, or injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma. Prompt diagnosis and management can help prevent further fractures and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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